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  • Question 1 - A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. Following discussion with her family, it is decided to withdraw active treatment including fluids and antibiotics as the admission likely represents a terminal event. Two days after admission, she becomes agitated and restless.

      What is the most appropriate management for her agitation and confusion?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Generally, underlying causes of confusion need to be looked for and treated as appropriate, for example, hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, and medication. If specific treatments fail, the following may be tried:

      1. First choice: haloperidol
      2. Other options: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine

      In the terminal phase of the illness, agitation or restlessness is best treated with midazolam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      63.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of his mouth. Upon examination, angular cheilitis is diagnosed. Anamnesis reveals a history of excessive drinking and malnutrition. What is the most probable deficiency responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B2 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into glucose for energy. Riboflavin deficiency can cause fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, and depression. It can affect the skin by causing skin cracks, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth. Hyperaemia and oedema around throat, liver degeneration, and hair loss can also occur along with reproductive issues. Usually, people with riboflavin deficiency also have deficiencies of other nutrients. In most cases, riboflavin deficiency can be reversed unless it has caused anatomical changes such as cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An soccer player suddenly collapsed on the field and started coughing along with...

    Incorrect

    • An soccer player suddenly collapsed on the field and started coughing along with shortness of breath. The investigation of choice in this case would be?

      Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)

      Correct Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Exercise induced asthma is characterised by sudden onset wheezing, cough and shortness of breath while performing hectic physical activity. The best investigation to perform is a chest X-ray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old male diagnosed previously with villous adenoma presented in the OPD with...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male diagnosed previously with villous adenoma presented in the OPD with severe diarrhoea. Which of the following electrolyte or fluid imbalances is most commonly associated with such a condition?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Lower GIT fluid is rich in potassium. So, in the case of severe diarrhoea, potassium loss occurs leading to hypokalaemia. Loss of bicarbonate ions also occurs. Both of these disturbances will lead to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      172
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman is investigated for weight loss and anaemia. Clinical examination reveals...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is investigated for weight loss and anaemia. Clinical examination reveals splenomegaly associated with pale conjunctivae.

      Her full blood count (FBC) report shows:
      Hb: 10.9 g/dL
      Plts: 702 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 56.6 x 10^9/L
      Moreover, all stages of granulocyte maturation are seen on her blood film.

      Given the likely diagnosis, what should be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Imatinib

      Explanation:

      This patient is a case of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) and should be started on imatinib as the first-line drug of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination

      Explanation:

      Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - From the following drugs, which is an inhaled glucocorticoid that is used for...

    Correct

    • From the following drugs, which is an inhaled glucocorticoid that is used for maintenance therapy, but not important in mild asthmatic attacks?

      Your Answer: Fluticasone propionate

      Explanation:

      From the given answers Fluticasone propionate is the inhaled glucocorticoid. It is not important as a reliever medication but important in maintenance therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 59-year-old woman has an 11mm skin lesion on her right forearm, which...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman has an 11mm skin lesion on her right forearm, which bleeds easily on contact and has changed in appearance over the last 11 months.

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Explanation:

      Melanoma is more common in men than women. Reasons for the disease includes: UV light and genetic predisposition or mutations. Diagnosis is by biopsy and analysis of any skin lesion that has signs of being potentially cancerous.
      Early warning signs of melanoma ABCDE:
      Asymmetry
      Borders (irregular with edges and corners)
      Colour (variegated)
      Diameter (greater than 6 mm)
      Evolving over time

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty,...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure.
      Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l.
      A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology.

      Which diagnosis fits best with this woman's clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Profound hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
      Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.

      The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      737.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He has reported increasing bone and muscle aches over the past few weeks.
       
      Medications include ramipril, amlodipine and indapamide for blood pressure control, atorvastatin for lipid management, and insulin for control of his blood sugar. On examination his BP is 148/80 mmHg, his pulse is 79 and regular. His BMI is 28.
       
      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 10.7 g/dl (13.5-17.7)
      White cell count 8.2 x 10(9)/l (4-11)
      Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400)
      Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146)
      Serum potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5-5)
      Creatinine 192 μmol/l (79-118)
      Calcium 2.18 mmol/l (2.2-2.67)
      Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l (0.7-1.5)

       
      He has tried following a low phosphate diet.
       
      Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step in controlling his phosphate levels?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D supplementation

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Sevelamer is a phosphate-binding drug that can lower raised serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Because of its aluminium-related side-effects, aluminium hydroxide is no longer the drug of choice.
      The other options are calcium-containing salts that may increase risks of tissue calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      114.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol

      Explanation:

      Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
      Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
      Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
      Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
      Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failure

      Management has changed in recent times:
      Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
      Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
      Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old man was admitted with urinary dribbling and incontinence. Upon examination, there...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted with urinary dribbling and incontinence. Upon examination, there is a palpable mass up to the umbilicus. His clothes smell of ammonia and he is known to be a chronic alcoholic. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Urethral catheter

      Explanation:

      It is obvious in this case that chronic alcohol use has contributed to the patient’s urinary incontinence which requires a urethral catheter. Suprapubic catheters are usually preferred in cases of acute urinary retention while condom catheters are indicated in less severe cases of urinary incontinence. We would administer antibiotics if we suspected a urinary infection causing the urinary incontinence, but in this case the cause is obvious.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      626.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 76-year-old woman attends the Emergency Department after knocking her shin on some...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman attends the Emergency Department after knocking her shin on some furniture at home. She takes prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica. You examine her leg and find a pretibial laceration with a large skin flap. Which of the following is the best way to manage this?

      Your Answer: Clean then suture the laceration with a 4/0 non-absorbable suture

      Correct Answer: Clean then steristrip the laceration

      Explanation:

      In young patients with good skin, pre-tibial lacerations may be sutured, usually with non-absorbable sutures that are removed after 7-10 days. In elderly patients with thin skin, or those on warfarin or steroids, the skin is frequently too fragile to suture. For these patients the wound should be thoroughly cleaned and meticulously steristripped to best aid skin healing. A non-adherent dressing and a light bandage can be applied and the patient should be encouraged to elevate the leg. Patients should be reviewed after a week. The laceration may take many months to heal and some require skin grafting procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Ciprofloxacin is used to treat many infectious diseases. It acts by which of...

    Incorrect

    • Ciprofloxacin is used to treat many infectious diseases. It acts by which of the following mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis (translation)

      Correct Answer: Interference with DNA replication

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin disturbs the functioning of DNA gyrase and interferes in the DNA replication process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He is hypertensive, for which he takes amlodipine. There is shortness of breath on exercise. His alcohol history is two cans of stout per day.
       
      ECG is normal, and CXR reveals normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Serum albumin is 23 g/dl; urinary albumin excretion is 7 g/24 h, with no haematuria. He has mild anaemia with a normal MCV. Total cholesterol is elevated.
       
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome usually presents with the symptoms in this patient: low albumin, abnormal cholesterol, increased urinary albumin excretion, oedema, and as a consequence, hypertension as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      115.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision.
      Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sucralfate

      Correct Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.

      Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.
      Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.
      Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver.
      Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      86.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old female presents with tiredness and weakness. On examination, she is pale...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old female presents with tiredness and weakness. On examination, she is pale and has a haemoglobin of 72 g/L with an MCV of 68 fL. Which nail changes may be seen in association with this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Koilonychia

      Explanation:

      Koilonychia, known as spoon nails, is a condition of the nails bending inwards, taking the shape of a spoon. This is a strong indication of iron-deficiency anaemia (IDA). The rest of the patient’s symptoms further indicate IDA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following statements regarding the proton pump inhibitors is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the proton pump inhibitors is true?

      Your Answer: They reversibly block parietal cell proton pumps

      Correct Answer: They cause hair loss, diarrhoea, and headache

      Explanation:

      Common side effects of omeprazole include: headache, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, gas (flatulence), dizziness, upper respiratory infection, acid reflux, constipation, rash, cough.
      Less common side effects of Omeprazole include: bone fracture (osteoporosis related), deficiency of granulocytes in the blood, loss of appetite, gastric polyps, hip fracture, hair loss, chronic inflammation of the stomach, destruction of skeletal muscle, taste changes, abnormal dreams.
      Rare side effects of Omeprazole include: liver damage, inflammation within the kidneys, pancreatitis, dermatologic disorder, potentially life threatening (toxic epidermal necrolysis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 18-year-old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip pain and...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip pain and an associated limp. She has a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia for which she completed treatment for last six months.

      Your Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head is a pathological process that results from disruption of the blood supply to the bone and occurs most commonly in the femoral epiphysis. Patients usually present with pain and limited joint motion. The mechanism involves impaired circulation to a specific area that ultimately becomes necrotic. AVN is most frequently associated with high doses of oral and intravenous corticosteroids and prolonged duration of therapy. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy are usually also treated with corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old male complained of an annular rash following an insect bite he...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male complained of an annular rash following an insect bite he received during a hiking trip. Which of the following is the drug of choice?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline PO

      Explanation:

      The described rash is the typical rash of erythema migrans of Lyme disease, which is treated by doxycycline PO

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HIV seroconversion illness

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      This man has gingivostomatitis, a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first (primary) herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.
      Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis (PHGS) is caused predominantly by HSV-1 and affects mainly children. Prodromal symptoms, such as fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache, may occur in advance of disease. Sub-mandibular lymphadenitis, halitosis and refusal to drink are usual concomitant findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old woman had a major surgery for removal of cancer of the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman had a major surgery for removal of cancer of the ovary and lymph node dissection 6 days ago. She had not passed any flatus or stool since then. She recently developed recurrent vomiting and severe abdominal distention. What is the next step of management?

      Your Answer: NG tube suction and IV fluids

      Explanation:

      This patient developed paralytic ileus. It should be treated conservatively using IV fluids and NG tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      83
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?

      Your Answer: In normal subjects the small airways contribute to most of the resistance

      Correct Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.

      The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.

      The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.

      There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne....

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne. She tells you that she has a period only every few months and when she has one it tends to be very heavy.
      On examination, she has obvious facial acne. Her BP is 142/78 mmHg, her pulse is 72 bpm and regular and her BMI is 30. There is facial hair and hair around her upper chest and breasts.

      Investigations show:
      Haemoglobin 11.9 g/dl (11.5-16.0)
      White cell count 6.0 x 10(9)/l (4-11)
      Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400)
      Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146)
      Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5)
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l (79-118)
      Total testosterone normal
      Free androgen index elevated
      LH / FSH ratio 2.2

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome:
      Two of the following three criteria are required:
      1. Oligo/anovulation
      2. Hyperandrogenism
      – Clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or
      – Biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
      Other aetiologies must be excluded such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-secreting tumours, Cushing syndrome, thyroid dysfunction and hyperprolactinaemia.
      Cushing’s is excluded because there would have been marked obesity, hypertension and other related features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs of cigarette...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs of cigarette per day complains of a cough and fever for the last three days. He also has right-sided chest pain when he inhales. On examination he is slightly cyanosed, has a temperature of 38.1°C, a respiratory rate of 39/min, a BP of 104/71 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 132/min. He has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the right lung base.
      What could be a probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Bronchopneumonia presents as a patchy consolidation involving one or more lobes, usually the dependent lung zones, a pattern attributable to aspiration of oropharyngeal contents.

      Symptoms of bronchopneumonia may be like other types of pneumonia. This condition often begins with flu-like symptoms that can become more severe over a few days. The symptoms include:
      – fever
      – a cough that brings up mucus
      – shortness of breath
      – chest pain
      – rapid breathing
      – sweating
      – chills
      – headaches
      – muscle aches
      – pleurisy, or chest pain that results from inflammation due to excessive coughing
      – fatigue
      – confusion or delirium, especially in older people

      There are several factors that can increase your risk of developing bronchopneumonia. These include:
      – Age: People who are 65 years of age or older, and children who are 2 years or younger, have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia and complications from the condition.
      – Environmental: People who work in, or often visit, hospital or nursing home facilities have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia.
      – Lifestyle: Smoking, poor nutrition, and a history of heavy alcohol use can increase your risk for bronchopneumonia.
      – Medical conditions: Having certain medical conditions can increase your risk for developing this type of pneumonia. These include: chronic lung disease, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), HIV/AIDS, having a weakened immune system due to chemotherapy or the use of immunosuppressive drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg during a routine medical check. She is otherwise well and her physical examination is unremarkable.
      Blood tests show:
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 2.6 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 31 mmol/l
      Urea 3.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 77 µmol/l

      Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer: Renin:aldosterone ratio

      Explanation:

      Primary aldosteronism now is considered one of the more common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
      Individuals with primary aldosteronism may present with hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis; however, as many as 38% of patients with primary aldosteronism may be normokalaemia at presentation.
      Routine laboratory studies can show hypernatremia, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis resulting from the action of aldosterone on the renal distal convoluted tubule (DCT) (i.e., enhancing sodium reabsorption and potassium and hydrogen ion excretion).
      Plasma aldosterone/plasma renin activity ratio is used for screening because it is fairly constant over many physiologic conditions.

      The patient is clinically free, so Cushing diseases can be exclude.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      91.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 46-year-old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows:
      Temp: 38.8
      BP: 90/60 mmHg
      Pulse: 110/min.
      Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?

      Your Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently

      Explanation:

      Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      176.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 31-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?

      Your Answer: First-degree relative

      Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin

      Explanation:

      An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In an emergency bowel procedure, which among these antibiotics are indicated during anaesthetic...

    Incorrect

    • In an emergency bowel procedure, which among these antibiotics are indicated during anaesthetic induction?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic prophylaxis is utilized to avert infection and is based on the degree of contamination involved in the surgical procedure. Operations where the wound is contained with minimal risk of contamination, antibiotic prophylaxis is questionable. In this case there is a high risk of contamination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain after eating, and diarrhoea. She has lost 7 kg in weight over the last few months. A recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy were normal. Her past medical history includes angina and a right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan.

      right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan.
      Blood tests revealed:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 118 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 12.3 x 109/l
      Platelets 210 x 109/l
      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      Urea 8.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 134 mmol/l

      Select the most appropriate further investigations.

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen

      Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is 74 years old. She has had a recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy. She has a history of angina and a right CEA. She is having colicky abdominal pain after meals and weight loss, which points to a possible diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischemia. Thus, you would want to do a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen to look for this. A 24 hour cardiac monitor would also be helpful to look for any abnormal rhythm that could be a potential aetiology of her disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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