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  • Question 1 - A child who has recently been commenced on antipsychotics is found in bed...

    Correct

    • A child who has recently been commenced on antipsychotics is found in bed adopting a strange posture, what would you suspect?

      Your Answer: Dystonia

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced dystonias typically manifest within a few days of initiating antipsychotic medication (of following a significant dosage increase). While they can affect any muscle group, they most frequently occur in the head and neck region.

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei? ...

    Incorrect

    • The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 7 – 12

      Correct Answer: CN 3 - 12

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The shift towards a more typical existence for individuals with developmental disabilities, away...

    Incorrect

    • The shift towards a more typical existence for individuals with developmental disabilities, away from institutionalized care, is known as what?

      Your Answer: Community focussed care

      Correct Answer: Normalisation

      Explanation:

      Normalisation in Learning Disability Care

      Normalisation is a concept that is widely used in the field of learning disability care. It refers to the principles of providing individuals with a life experience that is as normal as possible. This approach is a departure from the traditional model of institutionalised care, which often isolates individuals from the wider community. Normalisation aims to create an environment that is inclusive and supportive, where individuals can participate in everyday activities and have access to the same opportunities as everyone else. By promoting independence and social integration, normalisation helps to improve the quality of life for people with learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a true statement about the cerebellum? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the cerebellum?

      Your Answer: It is separated from the brainstem by the tentorium cerebelli

      Correct Answer: The vestibulocerebellum controls balance and spatial orientation

      Explanation:

      The Cerebellum: Anatomy and Function

      The cerebellum is a part of the brain that consists of two hemispheres and a median vermis. It is separated from the cerebral hemispheres by the tentorium cerebelli and connected to the brain stem by the cerebellar peduncles. Anatomically, it is divided into three lobes: the flocculonodular lobe, anterior lobe, and posterior lobe. Functionally, it is divided into three regions: the vestibulocerebellum, spinocerebellum, and cerebrocerebellum.

      The vestibulocerebellum, located in the flocculonodular lobe, is responsible for balance and spatial orientation. The spinocerebellum, located in the medial section of the anterior and posterior lobes, is involved in fine-tuned body movements. The cerebrocerebellum, located in the lateral section of the anterior and posterior lobes, is involved in planning movement and the conscious assessment of movement.

      Overall, the cerebellum plays a crucial role in motor coordination and control. Its different regions and lobes work together to ensure smooth and precise movements of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the theory that is linked to the idea of the 'internal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the theory that is linked to the idea of the 'internal working model'?

      Your Answer: Piaget's theory of cognitive development

      Correct Answer: Bowlby's attachment theory

      Explanation:

      Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys

      Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.

      Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.

      Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the term used to describe the process of a drug moving...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of a drug moving from the site of administration to the systemic circulation?

      Your Answer: Distribution

      Correct Answer: Absorption

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the options below is not considered as one of Kraepelin's mixed...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below is not considered as one of Kraepelin's mixed states?

      Your Answer: Inhibited depression

      Explanation:

      Kraepelin’s Mixed States: A Historical Overview

      Kraepelin’s six types of mixed states were based on various combinations of mood, will, and thought processes. These mixed states are less common than pure mania of pure depression. Dysphoric mania and depressive mixed state are the two types of mixed states that have been reduced over the years. Other terms used to describe mixed states include agitated depression, anxious depression, irritable depression, and mixed hypomania. Despite the reduction in the number of mixed states, they remain a relevant psychopathological syndrome in modern times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the most indicative sign of depression in the mental state examination?...

    Correct

    • What is the most indicative sign of depression in the mental state examination?

      Your Answer: Disheveled hair

      Explanation:

      Mental State Exam: Appearance

      The appearance of a patient can provide valuable clues to an underlying disorder. It is important to note that the following examples are not always present, but they can be helpful for educational purposes.

      Individuals experiencing hypomania or mania may tend to wear bright and colorful clothing and may apply unusual of garish makeup. On the other hand, unfashionable and mismatched clothing may indicate schizoid personality traits of autistic spectrum disorders.

      An excessively tidy appearance may suggest an obsessional personality. It is important to consider these cues in conjunction with other aspects of the mental state exam to arrive at an accurate diagnosis. Proper observation and interpretation of a patient’s appearance can aid in the development of an effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - How does depression in an otherwise fit individual impact the autonomous risk factor...

    Correct

    • How does depression in an otherwise fit individual impact the autonomous risk factor for the onset of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

      Your Answer: Doubles the risk of CHD

      Explanation:

      Depression has been found to be strongly associated with cardiovascular disease, even after controlling for other risk factors such as smoking. Studies have demonstrated that depression is an independent predictor of both fatal and non-fatal ischaemic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      123.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - How can heterogeneity be defined in the context of genetic diseases? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can heterogeneity be defined in the context of genetic diseases?

      Your Answer: Heterogeneity

      Correct Answer: Imprinting

      Explanation:

      Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders

      Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.

      Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.

      Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      111.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause hypotension, and it is believed that this...

    Correct

    • Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause hypotension, and it is believed that this effect is mediated by a specific type of receptor. Which receptor is thought to be responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Alpha 1

      Explanation:

      Postural hypotension is a known side effect of alpha-1-blockade.

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which type of nerve fiber lacks a myelin sheath? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of nerve fiber lacks a myelin sheath?

      Your Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Primary Afferent Axons: Conveying Information about Touch and Pain

      Primary afferent axons play a crucial role in conveying information about touch and pain from the surface of the body to the spinal cord and brain. These axons can be classified into four types based on their functions: A-alpha (proprioception), A-beta (touch), A-delta (pain and temperature), and C (pain, temperature, and itch). While all A axons are myelinated, C fibers are unmyelinated.

      A-delta fibers are responsible for the sharp initial pain, while C fibers are responsible for the slow, dull, longer-lasting second pain. Understanding the different types of primary afferent axons and their functions is essential in diagnosing and treating various sensory disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of these organs is not classified as a circumventricular organ? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these organs is not classified as a circumventricular organ?

      Your Answer: Pineal gland

      Correct Answer: The olive

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Blood Brain Barrier

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) is a crucial component of the brain’s defense system against harmful chemicals and ion imbalances. It is a semi-permeable membrane formed by tight junctions of endothelial cells in the brain’s capillaries, which separates the blood from the cerebrospinal fluid. However, certain areas of the BBB, known as circumventricular organs, are fenestrated to allow neurosecretory products to enter the blood.

      When it comes to MRCPsych questions, the focus is on the following aspects of the BBB: the tight junctions between endothelial cells, the ease with which lipid-soluble molecules pass through compared to water-soluble ones, the difficulty large and highly charged molecules face in passing through, the increased permeability of the BBB during inflammation, and the theoretical ability of nasally administered drugs to bypass the BBB.

      It is important to remember the specific circumventricular organs where the BBB is fenestrated, including the posterior pituitary and the area postrema. Understanding the BBB’s function and characteristics is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat neurological disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      88.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - One statement that is false regarding the genetics of ADHD is: ADHD is...

    Incorrect

    • One statement that is false regarding the genetics of ADHD is: ADHD is caused by a single gene mutation.

      Your Answer: Relatives of affected individuals with ADHD have an increased risk of the condition

      Correct Answer: ADHD has been associated with the neuregulin 1 gene

      Explanation:

      While ADHD has been linked to various genes, neuregulin 1 is not among them. However, it has been suggested to play a role in schizophrenia.

      ADHD and Genetics

      Decades of research have shown that genetics play a crucial role in the development of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and its comorbidity with other disorders. However, twin estimates of heritability being less than 100% suggest that environmental factors also play a role. Parents and siblings of a child with ADHD are more likely to have ADHD themselves, but the way ADHD is inherited is complex and not related to a single genetic fault. The heritability of ADHD is around 74%, and longitudinal studies show that two-thirds of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood. Adoption studies suggest that the familial factors of ADHD are attributable to genetic factors rather than shared environmental factors. The heritability is similar in males and females, and studies suggest that the diagnosis of ADHD is the extreme of a continuous distribution of ADHD symptoms in the population. Several candidate genes, including DAT1, DRD4, DRD5, 5 HTT, HTR1B, and SNAP25, have been identified as significantly associated with ADHD.

      Source: Faraone (2019) Genetics of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Molecular Psychiatry volume 24, pages 562–575 (2019).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      212.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the term used to describe the condition where a person cannot...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the condition where a person cannot identify faces?

      Your Answer: Prosopagnosia

      Explanation:

      Agnosia is a condition where a person loses the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, of smells, despite having no significant memory loss of defective senses. There are different types of agnosia, such as prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces), anosognosia (inability to recognize one’s own condition/illness), autotopagnosia (inability to orient parts of the body), phonagnosia (inability to recognize familiar voices), simultanagnosia (inability to appreciate two objects in the visual field at the same time), and astereoagnosia (inability to recognize objects by touch).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      73.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which substance follows zero order kinetics during metabolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance follows zero order kinetics during metabolism?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old male reports experiencing memory impairment and increased impulsivity. Which neuropsychological assessment...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male reports experiencing memory impairment and increased impulsivity. Which neuropsychological assessment would be useful in evaluating potential frontal lobe dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Mini-mental state examination

      Correct Answer: Luria's three step test

      Explanation:

      Assessment Tools:

      Luria’s Test:
      Luria’s test is a motor task designed by Alexander Luria, a Russian neuropsychologist. The test was developed based on his observation that individuals with significant frontal lobe damage were unable to modify their responses to a programmed motor task when the order of actions in the task was changed.

      Geriatric Depression Scale:
      The Geriatric Depression Scale is a screening tool used to identify depression in older adults. It is not designed to assess cognitive impairment.

      Mini-Mental State Examination:
      The Mini-Mental State Examination is a brief, 30-question screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment. It does not evaluate frontal lobe functions.

      National Adult Reading Test:
      The National Adult Reading Test is used to assess the premorbid level of intelligence in English-speaking patients.

      Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale:
      The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale is a comprehensive assessment tool used to measure intelligence in adults and older adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the most frequent reason for polyuria? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent reason for polyuria?

      Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism?

      Your Answer: Montgomery-Asberg scale

      Correct Answer: Simpson-Angus scale

      Explanation:

      The Simpson-Angus scale was created to evaluate parkinsonism caused by medication, utilizing consistent assessments for stiffness, shaking, and excessive saliva production. The scale solely relies on observable symptoms.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the name of the attitude assessment scale that typically employs a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the attitude assessment scale that typically employs a seven-point scale and presents bipolar options like 'strong' of 'weak'?

      Your Answer: Likert Scale

      Correct Answer: Semantic Differential Scale

      Explanation:

      Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which term is commonly associated with Goffman? ...

    Correct

    • Which term is commonly associated with Goffman?

      Your Answer: Total institution

      Explanation:

      Goffman coined the term ‘total institution’ in relation to asylums, which were responsible for fulfilling all the patients’ requirements, thereby hindering their rehabilitation.

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      161.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is an example of a non-fluent aphasia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a non-fluent aphasia?

      Your Answer: Broca's aphasia

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?...

    Correct

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?

      Your Answer: Vestibulocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The vestibulocerebellum develops at the same time as the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear. Its regulates balance between agonist and antagonist muscle contractions of the spine, hips, and shoulders during rapid movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which statement regarding the volume of distribution is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding the volume of distribution is not true?

      Your Answer: It can be helpful in the treatment of overdoses

      Correct Answer: It is calculated by dividing the drug concentration in the plasma by the amount in the body

      Explanation:

      Which of the following is NOT true regarding the equation Vd = amount in body / plasma concentration?

      Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology

      The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.

      The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.

      The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which statement accurately describes sporadic CJD? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes sporadic CJD?

      Your Answer: It usually presents with psychiatric and behavioural problems

      Correct Answer: It tends to affect older rather than younger people

      Explanation:

      Variant CJD primarily affects younger individuals, while sporadic CJD is more commonly seen in older individuals.

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.

      vCJD:
      – Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
      – Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
      – MRI shows pulvinar sign
      – EEG shows generalized slowing
      – Originates from infected meat products
      – Affects younger people (age 25-30)

      CJD:
      – Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
      – Presents with neurological symptoms
      – MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
      – EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
      – Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
      – Affects older people (age 55-65)

      Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      118.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which neurochemical pathway is responsible for causing extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) due to...

    Correct

    • Which neurochemical pathway is responsible for causing extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) due to dopamine blockade?

      Your Answer: Nigrostriatal

      Explanation:

      The Four Dopamine Pathways in the Brain

      The brain has four main dopamine pathways that play crucial roles in regulating various functions. The nigrostriatal pathway is responsible for motor movement and runs from the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia. However, blocking D2 receptors in this pathway can lead to extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs).

      The tuberoinfundibular pathway, on the other hand, runs from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary and is responsible for regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine inhibits prolactin secretion, which is why D2 selective antipsychotics can cause hyperprolactinemia.

      The mesocortical pathway originates from the ventral tegmental area (VTA) and runs to the prefrontal cortex. This pathway plays a crucial role in regulating cognition, executive functioning, and affect.

      Finally, the mesolimbic pathway also originates from the VTA and runs to the nucleus accumbens. This pathway is responsible for mediating positive psychotic symptoms, and dopamine hyperactivity in this pathway can lead to the development of these symptoms.

      Overall, understanding the different dopamine pathways in the brain is crucial for developing effective treatments for various psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.4
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  • Question 27 - In which of the following conditions are taste hallucinations more likely to occur?...

    Correct

    • In which of the following conditions are taste hallucinations more likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Can occur in temporal lobe epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Hallucinations of taste, known as gustatory hallucinations, are characterized by unusual of unpleasant taste perceptions. The mechanism behind this disturbance in taste perception is often challenging to explain. Gustatory hallucinations can manifest in various organic conditions, including epilepsy, dementia, schizophrenia, and depression. Additionally, certain psychotropic medications, such as lithium carbonate, can also cause gustatory hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is an uncommon feature of serotonin syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an uncommon feature of serotonin syndrome?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome is identified by a combination of neuromuscular irregularities such as myoclonus and clonus, changes in mental state, and dysfunction of the autonomic nervous system.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.7
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder, currently on medication, experiences...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder, currently on medication, experiences a low white blood cell count after developing a sore throat. Which antipsychotic medication is most likely responsible for these side effects?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of white cell count and differential is necessary for all patients receiving clozapine due to the risk of neutropenia and fatal agranulocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the condition being described by a woman who experiences sudden falls...

    Correct

    • What is the condition being described by a woman who experiences sudden falls upon hearing a loud noise?

      Your Answer: Cataplexy

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, sleep paralysis, and cataplexy. Cataplexy is a brief and sudden weakening of muscle control, typically brought on by emotional triggers, and is frequently observed in individuals with narcolepsy.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (3/6) 50%
Neuro-anatomy (1/2) 50%
Psychological Development (0/2) 0%
Neurosciences (4/7) 57%
Psychopharmacology (3/6) 50%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/2) 0%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
Social Psychology (2/2) 100%
History And Mental State (1/1) 100%
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