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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old male, who was otherwise completely healthy, has developed severe and sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male, who was otherwise completely healthy, has developed severe and sudden pain in his lower back. It started after getting up from his bed. What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: AS

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      Sudden onset of severe lower back pain whilst is felt more when bending (such as getting up from a bed) is consistent with a diagnosis of a prolapsed intervertebral disc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following options is true of patients with oesophageal varices? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options is true of patients with oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer: In spontaneous bacterial peritonitis cefotaxime appears to be a useful antibiotic

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone has been shown to have no effect on the mechanisms of portal hypertension. Also, chronic use of propranolol can reduce the risk of variceal bleeding. The banding of large varices has been shown to be effective, too. Octreotide and terlipressin are also both used to prevent secondary haemorrhage. Cefotaxime is the most commonly used cephalosporin when treating spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Spironolactone helps to combat secondary hyperaldosteronism which is related to liver failure. It also helps to treat salt and water retention, which both contribute to portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old woman complains of numbness in her right hand that improves by...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman complains of numbness in her right hand that improves by shaking it. The surgeon has suggested a surgical option. Ligation of which of the following structures will improve the condition?

      Your Answer: Common flexor sheath

      Correct Answer: Flexor retinaculum

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause is median nerve inflammation due to carpal tunnel syndrome. It is treated surgically with ablation of the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old asthmatic woman presents with an acute attack. Her arterial blood gases...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old asthmatic woman presents with an acute attack. Her arterial blood gases breathing air are as follows:
      pH 7.31
      pO2 9.6 kPa
      pCO2 5.1 kPa

      What do these results signify?

      Your Answer: The attack is not severe

      Correct Answer: Her respiratory effort may be failing because she is getting tired

      Explanation:

      In any patient with asthma, a decreasing PaO2 and an increasing PaCO2, even into the normal range, indicates severe airway obstruction that is leading to respiratory muscle fatigue and patient exhaustion.

      Chest tightness and cough, which are the most common symptoms of asthma, are probably the result of inflammation, mucus plugs, oedema, or smooth muscle constriction in the small peripheral airways. Because major obstruction of the peripheral airways can occur without recognizable increases of airway resistance or FEV1, the physiologic alterations in acute exacerbations are generally subtle in the early stages. Poorly ventilated alveoli subtending obstructed bronchioles continue to be perfused, and as a consequence, the P(A-a)O2 increases and the PaO2 decreases. At this stage, ventilation is generally increased, with excessive elimination of carbon dioxide and respiratory alkalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 22-year-old female presents to the ER with a respiratory infection for which...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female presents to the ER with a respiratory infection for which the physician prescribes her azithromycin. She, however, is currently on combined oral contraceptive pills. Regarding her contraception, what should be advised to this patient?

      Your Answer: No extra precaution

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is the only antibiotic that has been reported to reduce plasma oestrogen concentrations. When taking Rifampicin, oral contraceptives cannot be relied upon and a second method of contraception is mandatory. Amoxicillin, ampicillin, griseofulvin, metronidazole and tetracycline have been rarely associated with contraceptive failure. When these agents are used, the clinician should discuss the available data with the patient and suggest a second form of birth control. Other antibiotics are most likely safe to use concomitantly with oral contraceptives.
      The danger with COCP is enzyme inducers which can lower the levels of the hormone in he blood, azithromycin is not an enzyme inducer. No additional precautions are required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with combined hormonal methods for durations of 3 weeks or less. The only proviso would be that if the antibiotics (and/or the illness) caused vomiting or diarrhoea, then the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.

      Inducers: RASAG
      – Rifampicin
      – Anticonvulsants, particularly phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbitone and primidone
      – Spironolactone, St Johns wort
      – Alcohol, long term
      – Griseofulvin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      62.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old male underwent a pneumonectomy. Post operatively he was drowsy and found...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male underwent a pneumonectomy. Post operatively he was drowsy and found to have a hyponatremia. What would be the most likely reason for his condition?

      Your Answer: Removal of hormonally active tumour

      Explanation:

      The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is often associated with small-cell lung carcinoma which manifests as a paraneoplastic disorder. SIADH due to non-small-cell cancer has been shown to be triggered following open surgical procedures, however this is an extremely rare phenomenon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 23-year-old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone. There is no improvement despite initial treatment.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

      Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2-2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      443.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 34 year-old gentleman presented with 3 months history of abdominal pain, intermittent...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year-old gentleman presented with 3 months history of abdominal pain, intermittent diarrhoea, melena and loss of weight. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Correct Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is characterized by abdominal and pelvic pain, intermittent diarrhoea, loss of weight and tenesmus. Irritable bowel disease is associated either with diarrhoea or constipation and occurs in stressful conditions for the individual. A UTI is characterised by dysuria, fever and lumbar pain. Adenomyosis is characterised by heavy menstrual bleeding and chronic pelvic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and depression, presents with neck and right arm pain. She claims that the pain is present for two months and is triggered by flexing her neck. Clinical examination reveals sensory loss over the middle finger and palm of the hand without any obvious muscle atrophy or weakness. Which nerve root is most probably affected?

      Your Answer: C5

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of cervical radiculopathy is degenerative disease in the cervical spine. In 80-90% of patients with cervical radiculopathy, the C5/C6 or C6/C7 motion segments are affected by degenerative disease and the nearby C6 and/or C7 nerve roots are producing the symptoms. Patients with cervical radiculopathy complain of neck pain and radiating pain in the arm sometimes combined with sensory and motor disturbances in the arm and/or hand. These symptoms are accepted as being caused by the nerve root compression. Middle finger and palm of the hand are mostly rising the suspicion for C7 nerve root and median nerve involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Physiological jaundice

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      94.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal System (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (1/2) 50%
Nervous System (0/2) 0%
Respiratory System (2/3) 67%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary System (0/1) 0%
Passmed