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  • Question 1 - A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals that he has suffered damage to the nerve that innervates pectoralis major.
      Pectoralis major receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral nerve and long thoracic nerve

      Correct Answer: Lateral and medial pectoral nerves

      Explanation:

      Pectoralis major is a thick, fan-shaped muscle situated in the chest. It makes up the bulk of the chest musculature in the male and lies underneath the breast in the female. It overlies the thinner pectoralis minor muscle.
      Superficial muscles of the chest and arm showing pectoralis major (from Gray’s Anatomy)
      Pectoralis major has two heads; the clavicular head and the sternocostal head. The clavicular head originates from the anterior border and medial half of the clavicle. The sternocostal head originates from the anterior surface of the sternum, the superior six costal cartilages and the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. It inserts into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus.
      Pectoralis major receives dual innervation from the medial pectoral nerve and the lateral pectoral nerve.
      Its main actions are as follows:
      Flexes humerus (clavicular head)
      Extends humerus (sternocostal head)
      Adducts and medially rotates the humerus
      Draws scapula anteriorly and inferiorly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea develops a low platelet...

    Correct

    • A patient with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea develops a low platelet count and deranged renal function. A diagnosis of haemolytic uraemic syndrome is made.
      Which of the following organisms is a recognised cause of haemolytic uraemic syndrome? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      E.Colistrain 0157 causes enterohaemorrhagic diarrhoea and can be followed by haemolytic uraemic syndrome (renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following immunoglobulins is predominant in saliva: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immunoglobulins is predominant in saliva:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin A is predominant in saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Coagulative necrosis is typically seen in which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Coagulative necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Coagulative necrosis is the most common form of necrosis characterised by the loss of cell nuclei, but with general preservation of the underlying architecture. Dead tissue is macroscopically pale and firm. This is the classic pattern seen in myocardial infarction.Liquefactive necrosis leads to complete loss of cellular structure and conversion into a soft, semi-solid mass. This is typically seen in the brain following cerebral infarction.Caseous necrosis is most commonly seen in tuberculosis. Histologically, the complete loss of normal tissue architecture is replaced by amorphous, granular and eosinophilic tissue with a variable amount of fat and an appearance reminiscent of cottage cheese.Gangrenous necrosis is necrosis with putrefaction of tissues due to exposure to air (dry gangrene) or infection (wet gangrene).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is NOT a typical electrolyte disturbance caused by furosemide:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical electrolyte disturbance caused by furosemide:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of loop diuretics include:
      Mild gastrointestinal disturbances, pancreatitis and hepatic encephalopathy
      Hyperglycaemia
      Acute urinary retention
      Water and electrolyte imbalance
      Hyponatraemia, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypochloraemiaHypotension, hypovolaemia, dehydration, and venous thromboembolism
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Hyperuricaemia
      Blood disorders (bone marrow suppression, thrombocytopenia, and leucopenia)
      Visual disturbance, tinnitus and deafness
      Hypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type IV reactions includes:
      Contact dermatitis
      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
      Primary biliary cholangitis
      Tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test)
      Chronic transplant rejection
      Granulomatous inflammation (e.g. sarcoidosis, Crohn’s disease)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Airway resistance is predominantly determined by the radius of the airway as described by Poiseuille's law.

      Explanation:

      Flow through airways is described by Darcy’s law which states that flow is directly proportional to the mouth-alveolar pressure gradient and inversely proportional to airway resistance. Airway resistance is primarily determined by the airway radius according to Poiseuille’s law, and whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. Parasympathetic stimulation causes bronchoconstriction and sympathetic stimulation causes bronchodilation, but mediated by beta2-adrenoceptors. Muscarinic antagonists e.g. ipratropium bromide cause bronchodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following drugs used in the management of hyperkalaemia does not...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs used in the management of hyperkalaemia does not affect serum potassium levels:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Calcium gluconate is given to antagonise cardiac cell membrane excitability to reduce the risk of arrhythmias. It has no effect on serum potassium levels unlike the alternative drugs listed above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is most likely to cause a homonymous hemianopia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause a homonymous hemianopia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery stroke

      Explanation:

      A posterior cerebral stroke will most likely result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate was...

    Incorrect

    • During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate was prematurely born with cyanosis and ashen grey coloured skin as a result of this. Other symptoms were hypotonia, low blood pressure, and poor feeding.

      From the  following antibiotics, which one is most likely to cause this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Grey baby syndrome is a rare but causes significant adverse effect caused by the build-up of chloramphenicol in neonates (particularly preterm babies).

      The following are the main characteristics of ‘grey baby syndrome’:

      Skin that is ashy grey in colour.
      Feeding problems
      Vomiting
      Cyanosis
      Hypotension
      Hypothermia
      Hypotonia
      Collapse of the cardiovascular system
      Distension of the abdomen
      trouble breathing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient was diagnosed with Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial...

    Incorrect

    • A patient was diagnosed with Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury sustained in a car accident and, as a result, suffers from left arm paralysis. The following muscles are affected by the injury, except

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      Damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots causes Erb’s palsy.

      The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius muscle, thus you would not expect this muscle to be impacted.

      The trapezius is a muscle that runs from the base of the neck across the shoulders and into the centre of the back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly...

    Incorrect

    • Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly is observed during the examination.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the SINGLE MOST LIKELY?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Explanation:

      CML is a myeloproliferative disorder characterised by an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. A cytogenetic abnormality known as the Philadelphia chromosome, which results from a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22, causes more than 80% of cases of CML.

      CML is a disease that develops slowly over several years. This is known as the ‘chronic stage.’ This stage is usually asymptomatic, and 90 percent of patients are diagnosed at this point, with the disease being discovered frequently as a result of a routine blood test. During this stage, the bone marrow contains less than 10% immature white cells (blasts).

      When CML cells expand, symptoms typically begin to appear. The ‘accelerated stage’ is what it’s called. Approximately 10% of people are diagnosed at this point. During this stage, between 10% and 30% of blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts. During this stage, common clinical features include:
      Fatigue and exhaustion
      Night sweats and fever
      Distension of the abdomen
      Pain in the left upper quadrant (splenic infarction)
      Splenomegaly (commonest examination finding)
      Hepatomegaly
      Bruising is simple.
      Gout is a type of arthritis that affects (rapid cell turnover)
      Hyperviscosity is a condition in which the viscosity of (CVA, priapism)
      A small percentage of patients experience a ‘blast crisis’ (blast stage). More than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells at this stage. Patients with severe constitutional symptoms (fever, weight loss, bone pain), infections, and bleeding diathesis typically present at this stage.

      In CML, laboratory findings include:
      White cell count is abnormally high (often greater than 100 x 109/l).
      Increased number of immature leukocytes causes a left shift.
      Anaemia that is mild to moderately normochromic and normocytic.
      Platelets can be low, normal, or elevated, and the Philadelphia chromosome can be found in > 80% of patients.
      Serum uric acid and ALP levels are frequently elevated.
      Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), such as imatinib and dasatinib, are the current mainstay of CML treatment.
      Allogenic bone marrow transplantation is now only used in cases where TKIs have failed to work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Aside from the inability to extend the leg above the knee, which of...

    Incorrect

    • Aside from the inability to extend the leg above the knee, which of the following clinical symptoms should you anticipate seeing in a patient who had a pelvic and right leg injury as well as femoral nerve damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation over the anterior thigh

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve runs down the front of the leg from the pelvis. It gives the front of the thigh and a portion of the lower leg sensation.

      Extension of the leg at the knee joint, flexion of the thigh at the hip are produced by muscles that is primarily innervated by the femoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29 year old man presents to ED followed an alleged assault whilst...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old man presents to ED followed an alleged assault whilst out drinking. He received blunt trauma to his right axilla. He is complaining of difficulty abducting his right arm above the level of his shoulder, and on inspection, the inferior angle of his right scapula protrudes more than that of his left scapula. Which of the following nerves has most likely been affected:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      Damage to the long thoracic nerve results in weakness/paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle causing difficulty abducting the upper limb above 90 degrees and giving a ‘winged ‘ scapula appearance where the medial border, particularly the inferior angle, of the scapula moves laterally and posteriorly away from the thoracic wall (this becomes more pronounced if the patient presses the upper limb against a wall).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms that a patient may experience in Addison's disease.

      Which of the following claims about Addison's disease is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACTH levels are elevated in primary insufficiency

      Explanation:

      The adrenal glands produce too little steroid hormones, which causes Addison’s disease. The production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids are all altered. The most prevalent cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for 70-80 percent of cases.

      It affects more women than males and occurs most frequently between the ages of 30 and 50.

      The following are some of the clinical signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease:

      Weakness and sluggishness
      Hypotension is a condition in which the blood pressure (notably orthostatic hypotension)
      Vomiting and nausea
      Loss of weight
      Axillary and pubic hair loss
      Depression
      Hyperpigmentation is a condition in which a person’s (palmar creases, buccal mucosa and exposed areas more commonly affected)
      The following are the classic biochemical hallmarks of Addison’s disease:
      Hyponatraemia
      Hyperkalaemia
      Hypercalcaemia
      Hypoglycaemia
      Acidosis metabolica
      When ACTH levels are combined with cortisol levels, it is possible to distinguish between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency:
      In primary insufficiency, levels rise.
      In secondary insufficiency, levels are low or low normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of depression presents with a deliberate...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of depression presents with a deliberate overdose of verapamil tablets, which he is prescribed for a heart condition.

      What is verapamil's mechanism of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L-type calcium channel blockade

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      The standard ABC approach should be used to resuscitate all patients as needed. If life-threatening toxicity is expected, intubation and ventilation should be considered early on. If hypotension and shock are developing, early invasive blood pressure monitoring is recommended.

      The primary goal of specific treatments is to support the cardiovascular system. These are some of them:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Give up to 20 mL of crystalloid per kilogramme of body weight.

      2. Calcium supplementation
      This can be a good way to raise blood pressure and heart rate temporarily.
      via central venous access: 10% calcium gluconate 60 mL IV (0.6-1.0 mL/kg in children) or 10% calcium chloride 20 mL IV (0.2 mL/kg in children)
      Boluses can be given up to three times in a row.
      To keep serum calcium >2.0 mEq/L, consider a calcium infusion.

      3. Atropine: 0.6 mg every 2 minutes up to 1.8 mg is an option, but it is often ineffective.

      4. HIET (high-dose insulin-euglycemic therapy):
      The role of HIET in the step-by-step management of cardiovascular toxicity has changed.

      5. Vasoactive infusions:
      This was once thought to be a last-ditch measure, but it is now widely recommended that it be used sooner rather than later.
      Insulin with a short half-life 50 mL of 50 percent glucose IV bolus plus 1 U/kg bolus (unless marked hyperglycaemia present)
      Short-acting insulin/dextrose infusions should be continued.
      Glucose should be checked every 20 minutes for the first hour, then hourly after that.
      Regularly check potassium levels and replace if they fall below 2.5 mmol/L.
      Titrate catecholamines to effect (inotropy and chronotropy); options include dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline infusions.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Use 50-100 mEq sodium bicarbonate (0.5-1.0 mEq/kg in children) in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

      7. Cardiac pacing: It can be difficult to achieve electrical capture, and it may not improve overall perfusion.
      Bypass AV blockade with ventricular pacing, which is usually done at a rate of less than 60 beats per minute.

      8. Intralipid transport
      Calcium channel blockers are lipid-soluble agents, so they should be used in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old woman with history of hypertension, diabetes, and ischemic stroke, presents with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with history of hypertension, diabetes, and ischemic stroke, presents with left-sided hemiplegia of the face, tongue, and limbs and right-sided deficits in motor eye activity. A CT scan was ordered and showed a right-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      Weber syndrome is a midbrain stroke characterized by crossed hemiplegia along with oculomotor nerve deficits and it occurs with the occlusion of the median and/or paramedian perforating branches of the basilar artery.

      Typical clinical findings include ipsilateral CN III palsy, ptosis, and mydriasis (such as damage to parasympathetic fibres of CN III) with contralateral hemiplegia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department as she is acutely...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department as she is acutely unwell. Her attendants inform you that she was recently started on lithium as a mood stabilizer.

      You instantly send a blood sample to check for lithium levels.

      What is the usual therapeutic range for lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.4-0.8 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Lithium is the drug of choice for recurrent bipolar illness but should be carefully monitored as it has a very low therapeutic index. The normal therapeutic range is 0.4-0.8 mmol/l.

      The lower end of the range is usually the target for the elderly and as maintenance therapy. Toxicity is usually seen at levels >1.5 mmol/l. Samples should be taken 12 hours after the dose, and levels should be checked one week after starting therapy and one week after every change in dosage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding anti-D immunoglobulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding anti-D immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is administered as part of routine antenatal care for rhesus-negative mothers.

      Explanation:

      In all non-sensitised pregnant women who are RhD-negative, it is recommended that routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis is offered. Even if there is previous anti-D prophylaxis, use of routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis should be given for a sensitising event early in the same pregnancy. Postpartum anti-D prophylaxis should also be given even if there has been previous routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis or antenatal anti-D prophylaxis for a sensitising event in the same pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the complaint of increasing confusion and disorientation over the past three days, along with decreased urination. She reports that he has been complaining of increasing pain in his back and ribs over the past three months.

      On examination, the patient looks anaemic, is not oriented in time, place and person and has tenderness on palpation of the lumbar spine and the 10th, 11th and 12th ribs.

      Blood tests show anaemia which is normocytic, normochromic, raised urea and creatinine and hypercalcemia.

      Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma is a clonal abnormality affecting plasma cells in which there is an overproduction of functionless immunoglobulins. The most common patient complaint is bone pain, especially in the back and ribs. Anaemia and renal failure are common, along with hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia may lead to an altered mental status, as in this case.

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia occurs due to the overproduction of lymphocytes, usually B cells. CLL may present with an asymptomatic elevation of B cells. Patients are generally more than 50 years old and present with non-specific fatigue and weight loss symptoms.

      There is no history of alcohol abuse in this case. Furthermore, patients with a history of alcohol abuse may have signs of liver failure, which are not present here.

      Metastatic prostate cancer would most often cause lower backache as it metastasises first to the lumbar spine via the vertebral venous plexus.

      A patient with Vitamin B12 deficiency would have anaemia, megaloblastic, hypersegmented neutrophils, and signs of peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient presents with a necrolytic migratory rash. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a necrolytic migratory rash. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL. Following further investigations, she is diagnosed with glucagonoma.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding glucagon is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It makes fatty acids available for oxidation

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a human bite injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a human bite injury to his hand received from a punch during a fight 3 hours earlier outside a bar. On closer inspection, you discover bite marks on his first and second knuckles. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Even if there is no evidence of infection, prophylactic antibiotics should be administered for all human bite wounds that are less than 72 hours old. The first-line therapy is 7 days of co-amoxiclav. In penicillin-allergic people, metronidazole + doxycycline is an option. Streptococcus spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus spp., Eikenella corrodens, Bacteroides spp., and other anaerobes are the most prevalent organisms found in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 71-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness, and blood tests done shows a potassium level of 2.4 mmol/L.

      Which is NOT a recognised cause of hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      A plasma potassium less than 3.5 mmol/L defines hypokalaemia.

      Excessive liquorice ingestion causes hypermineralocorticoidism and leads to hypokalaemia.

      Gitelman’s syndrome causes metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia. It is an inherited defect of the distal convoluted tubules.

      Bartter’s syndrome causes hypokalaemic alkalosis. It is a rare inherited defect in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

      Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis both cause hypokalaemia

      Type 4 renal tubular acidosis causes hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is NOT a common myeloma laboratory finding: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a common myeloma laboratory finding:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated serum Bence-Jones protein

      Explanation:

      Myeloma laboratory findings include:
      – The presence of a paraprotein in serum or urine (the paraprotein is IgG in 60 percent of cases, IgA in 20 percent, and light chain only in almost all the rest),
      – Increased serum immunoglobulin-free light chain proteins generated by plasma cells but not coupled with heavy chains 
      – Reduced IgG, IgA, and IgM levels in the blood (immune paresis)
      – Anaemia, whether normochromic, normocytic, or macrocytic. 
      – On a blood film, a Rouleaux formation has been marked.
      – In advanced illness, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia are common.
      – ESR is high.
      – Plasma cells in the bone marrow are overabundant, typically in aberrant forms. – Hypercalcemia
      – Creatinine levels are high.
      – Serum albumin levels are low in advanced illness.
      60 percent of patients have osteolytic lesions, osteoporosis, or pathological fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic seizures

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is a drug of choice for simple and complex focal seizures and is a first-line treatment option for generalised tonic-clonic seizures. It is also used in trigeminal neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy. Carbamazepine may exacerbate tonic, atonic, myoclonic and absence seizures and is therefore not recommended if these seizures are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought...

    Incorrect

    • Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother. His forearm appears to be deformed, and you believe he has a distal radius fracture. A numerical rating scale is used to assess his pain, and the triage nurse informs you that he is in moderate pain.'

      The RCEM guidance recommends which of the following analgesics for the treatment of moderate pain in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral codeine phosphate 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      According to a 2018 audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the standard of care for children presenting to EDs with fractured limbs has deteriorated, with most patients waiting longer than ever before for pain relief. More than one-tenth of the children who came in with significant pain from a limb fracture received no pain relief at all.

      For all patients, including children, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the United States recommends using the ABCs of pain management:
      A – Ask about pain regularly. Assess pain systematically.
      B – Believe the patient and family in their reports of pain and what relieves it.
      C – Choose pain control options appropriate for the patient, family, and setting.
      D – Deliver interventions in a timely, logical, coordinated fashion.
      E – Empower patients and their families. Enable patients to control their course to the greatest extent possible.

      The RCEM guidelines recommend assessing a child’s pain within 15 minutes of arrival. This is a fundamental requirement. For the assessment of pain in children, a variety of rating scales are available; which one is used depends on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These are some of them:
      Faces of Wong-Baker Scale for assessing pain
      Scale of numerical evaluation
      The behavioural scale is a scale that measures how people behave.

      The RCEM has provided the following visual guide:
      The RCEM has established the following guidelines for when patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia:
      100% within 60 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest
      75% within 30 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest
      50% within 20 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - A 49-year-old woman with haemoglobin of 6 g/dL following persistent vaginal bleeding receives...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman with haemoglobin of 6 g/dL following persistent vaginal bleeding receives blood transfusion. She developed pain and burning at her cannula site and complains of a feeling of “impending doom”, nausea, and severe back pain shortly after transfusion was started. Her temperature is 38.9ºC.

      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions present with: Feeling of ‘impending doom’ as the earliest symptom, fever and chills, pain and warmth at transfusion site, nausea and vomiting, back, joint, and chest pain. Transfusion should be stopped immediately and IV fluid (usually normal saline) administered.

      Supportive measures and paracetamol can be given since patient has fever but it is not the immediate first step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 28 - Gastrin release from antral G-cells is inhibited by all but which one of...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin release from antral G-cells is inhibited by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagal stimulation

      Explanation:

      Gastrin secretion is inhibited by:
      Low gastric pH (negative feedback mechanism)
      Somatostatin
      Secretin
      Gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP)
      Cholecystokinin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
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  • Question 29 - You review a patient with urinary sepsis and decide to start her...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient with urinary sepsis and decide to start her on gentamicin.

      Which statement about gentamicin is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ototoxicity is a dose-related effect

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.

      Gentamicin is given by injection because it is NOT absorbed orally.

      It is excreted in the kidneys by glomerular filtration

      Gentamicin is not to be used for the treatment of Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoea, or Legionella pneumophila.There is a risk of patient going into shock from lipid A endotoxin release.

      Two of its most notable side effects are hearing loss reversible nephrotoxicity and which are both dose-related and levels should be monitored in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 7-year old boy is referred to the Paediatrics Department due to slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year old boy is referred to the Paediatrics Department due to slurred speech. Upon further examination, the attending physician noted the presence of dysdiadochokinesia, intention tremors, and nystagmus. An MRI is taken, which revealed a brain tumour.

      Which of the following options is the most probable diagnosis given the clinical features of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma of cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Pilocytic astrocytoma (PCA), previously known as cystic cerebellar astrocytoma or juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, was first described in 1931 by Harvey Cushing, based on a case series of cerebellar astrocytomas; though he never used these terms but rather described a spongioblastoma. They are low-grade, and usually well-circumscribed tumours, which tend to occur in young patients. By the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of central nervous system tumours, they are considered grade I gliomas and have a good prognosis.

      PCA most commonly occurs in the cerebellum but can also occur in the optic pathway, hypothalamus, and brainstem. They can also occur in the cerebral hemispheres, although this tends to be the case in young adults. Presentation and treatment vary for PCA in other locations. Glial cells include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, and microglia. Astrocytic tumours arise from astrocytes and are the most common tumour of glial origin. The WHO 2016 categorized these tumours as either diffuse gliomas or other astrocytic tumours. Diffuse gliomas include grade II and III diffuse astrocytomas, grade IV glioblastoma, and diffuse gliomas of childhood. The other astrocytic tumours group include PCA, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, and anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma.

      PCA can present with symptoms secondary to the posterior fossa mass effect. This may include obstructive hydrocephalus, with resultant headache, nausea and vomiting, and papilledema. If hydrocephalus occurs before the fusion of the cranial sutures (<18-months-of-age), then an increase in head circumference will likely occur. Lesions of the cerebellar hemisphere result in peripheral ataxia, dysmetria, intention tremor, nystagmus, and dysarthria. In contrast, lesions of the vermis cause a broad-based gait, truncal ataxia, and titubation. Posterior fossa lesions can also cause cranial nerve palsies. Diplopia may occur due to abducens palsy from the stretching of the nerve. They may also have blurred vision due to papilledema. Seizures are rare with posterior fossa lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
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