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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is an appetite stimulant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an appetite stimulant?

      Your Answer: Serotonin agonists

      Correct Answer: Neuropeptide Y

      Explanation:

      Neuropeptide Y induces appetite during trials in rats. Other agents mentioned here are either appetite suppressants or have no effect on appetite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?

      Your Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels

      Explanation:

      The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
      increased B2-microglobulin
      decreased IL-2 production
      polyclonal B-cell activation
      decreased NK cell function
      reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old lawyer presents to the gastroenterology clinic with weight loss, intermittent oily...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old lawyer presents to the gastroenterology clinic with weight loss, intermittent oily diarrhoea and malaise. Blood testing reveals folate and iron deficiency. There is also mild hypocalcaemia on biochemistry screening.

      She has type-1 diabetes of 10 years' duration and is stable on a basal bolus insulin regimen, otherwise her past medical history is unremarkable.

      Which of these antibody tests is most specific for making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of celiac disease as an aetiology. The antibody that is used primarily to suggest this diagnosis is anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. You can also check anti-gliadin and anti-endomyseal antibodies, although anti-TTG antibodies are now the preferred test. To get an official diagnosis you must have a tissue diagnosis (biopsy). Anti-smooth muscle antibodies would be seen in autoimmune hepatitis. Anti-thyroid antibodies are not at all related to this, and are associated with thyroid. Anti-nuclear antibodies are non-specific.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      94.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Tumour suppressor genes MLH1 and MSH2 are affected in which familial cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Tumour suppressor genes MLH1 and MSH2 are affected in which familial cancer?

      Your Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC)

      Explanation:

      In hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC), mutations in MSH2, MSH6, PMS2 or MLH1 genes are found.
      Ataxia telangiectasia – ATM gene is affected.
      Familial adenomatous polyposis – APC gene is affected.
      Li-Fraumeni syndrome – mutation of the TP53 tumour suppressor gene. Neurofibromatosis – mutation in or a deletion of the NF1 gene

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26 year-old gentleman presented with complaints of multiple bruises over his body...

    Correct

    • A 26 year-old gentleman presented with complaints of multiple bruises over his body and reddish urine after a road traffic accident. Labs showed deranged renal function. The best management step would be?

      Your Answer: IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis occurs after severe muscles injury and the patient presents with myoglobinuria and deranged RFTS. The best initial step in management is fluid resuscitation with normal saline. If initial management fails to treat the patient, we can go to haemodialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant?

      Your Answer: Type II pneumocyte

      Explanation:

      Type I pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the gas (oxygen and carbon dioxide) exchange that takes place in the alveoli. It is a very thin cell stretched over a very large area. This type of cell is susceptible to a large number of toxic insults and cannot replicate itself.
      Type II pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the production and secretion of surfactant (the molecule that reduces the surface tension of pulmonary fluids and contributes to the elastic properties of the lungs). The type 2 pneumocyte is a smaller cell that can replicate in the alveoli and will replicate to replace damaged type 1 pneumocytes. Alveolar macrophages are the primary phagocytes of the innate immune system, clearing the air spaces of infectious, toxic, or allergic particles that have evaded the mechanical defences of the respiratory tract, such as the nasal passages, the glottis, and the mucociliary transport system. The main role of goblet cells is to secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membranes where they are found. Goblet cells accomplish this by secreting mucins, large glycoproteins formed mostly by carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic at 36 weeks gestation with worsening shortness of breath.
      Which of the following is the most accurate statements regarding her condition?

      Your Answer: Risk of maternal mortality in patients with pulmonary hypertension is 30%

      Explanation:

      Historically, high rates of maternal and fetal death have been reported for pregnant women with pulmonary hypertension (30-56% and 11-28%, respectively). The causes of poor maternal outcomes are varied and include risk of death from right heart failure and stroke from intracardiac shunting. Furthermore, there is a high peri-/post-partum risk due to haemodynamic stress, bleeding complications and the use of general anaesthesia, which can all lead to right heart failure.
      The most common risk to the foetus is death, with premature birth and growth retardation being reported in successfully delivered children.
      CXR is not contraindicated in pregnancy. D-dimers are not used as a diagnostic aid as they are almost always elevated in pregnancy. Nifedipine, although contraindicated in pregnant women may be used judiciously if the need arises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - According to the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Correct

    • According to the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.

      The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmics
      I: Membrane stabilizing agents
      IA: Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide
      IB: Lidocaine, Mexiletine
      IC: Propafenone, Flecainide
      II: β blockers – Propranolol, Esmolol
      III: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, Sotalol
      IV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, Diltiazem
      V: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60 mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose of prednisolone and add a bisphosphonate

      Correct Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      180
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?

      Your Answer: P pulmonale

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old previously well male gives a history of on-and-off retrosternal heaviness during...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old previously well male gives a history of on-and-off retrosternal heaviness during exertion, relieved by resting. Pain lasts about 20-25 minutes. What is the clinical diagnosis of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of stable angina because of it’s duration, aggravating and relieving factors. Patients get retrosternal pain or discomfort which sometimes radiates to jaw or left axilla during a period of increased myocardial demand. Pain relieves during resting when myocardial demand meets supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal pain, which was present for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal pain, which was present for the past 40 minutes. ECG shows ST elevation and blood tests reveal high troponin levels. He has already been given oxygen, GTN and morphine. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Percutaneous angiography

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction and percutaneous angiography is the next most appropriate step in management. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), also known as coronary angioplasty, is a nonsurgical technique for treating obstructive coronary artery disease, including unstable angina, acute myocardial infarction (MI), and multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old male patient complains of emesis, fatigue, palpitations and weight loss. His...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male patient complains of emesis, fatigue, palpitations and weight loss. His blood group is type A. Clinical examination revealed an enlarged liver, ascites and a left supraclavicular lump which is palpable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gastric carcinoma may present as atypical general symptoms including emesis, fatigue and weight loss. It may also result in anaemia which might be responsible for the palpitations. The left supraclavicular swelling is referring to Virchow’s node, strongly associated with gastric cancer. Ascites and hepatomegaly generally appear late in the course of the disease and Blood group A has been shown to be associated with gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      369.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with recurrent attacks of red eyes with a sensation of grittiness. Which of the following is most likely cause of the red eyes?

      Your Answer: keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following medications is a long acting adrenergic beta-receptor agonist? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following medications is a long acting adrenergic beta-receptor agonist?

      Your Answer: Formoterol

      Explanation:

      Terbutaline is a long acting beta receptor agonist. It is used as an add on drug for step 3 in treatment of bronchial asthma. It causes relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles and thus, bronchodilatation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A woman presents with several painful ulcers on her vulva. What do you...

    Correct

    • A woman presents with several painful ulcers on her vulva. What do you think has most likely caused this?

      Your Answer: HSV

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted disease (STD). This STD causes herpetic sores, which are painful blisters (fluid-filled bumps) that can break open and ooze fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct?

      Your Answer: Bevacizumab may be used for advanced cases

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor

      Explanation:

      Diabetes is a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma. Screening has been shown to be effective. Bevacizumab is not used for advanced cases. The incidence is higher in men. Alcohol is not the most common underlying cause worldwide; this is from cirrhosis from diseases like hepatitis B and C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old butcher presents with a six month history of a gradually increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old butcher presents with a six month history of a gradually increasing burning sensation in his feet. Examination reveals normal cranial nerves and higher mental function. He has normal bulk, tone, power, light touch, pinprick sensation, coordination and reflexes in upper and lower limbs.

      These clinical findings are consistent with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Diabetic amyotrophy

      Correct Answer: Small fibre sensory neuropathy

      Explanation:

      The burning sensation described is typical of a neuropathy affecting the small unmyelinated and thinly myelinated nerve fibres. General neurological examination and reflexes are usually normal in this type of neuropathy unless there is coexisting large (myelinated) fibre involvement. Neuropathy affecting the large myelinated sensory fibres generally causes glove and stocking sensory loss and loss of reflexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After 6 months he presents in the infectious clinic with a second episode of meningitis. His past history is clear and he takes no regular medication. Which of the following is most probably deficient?

      Your Answer: C4

      Correct Answer: C5

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal meningitis is the most common and severe form of bacterial meningitis. Fatality rates are substantial, and long-term sequelae develop in about half of survivors. Disease outcome has been related to the severity of the proinflammatory response in the subarachnoid space. The complement system, which mediates key inflammatory processes, has been implicated as a modulator of pneumococcal meningitis disease severity in animal studies. C5 fragment levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with bacterial meningitis correlated with several clinical indicators of poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 62-year-old patient with shortness of breath has a chest x ray, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old patient with shortness of breath has a chest x ray, which shows right lower lobe consolidation. Dyspnoea started one week ago. Which of the following would support admission of the patient?

      Your Answer: A PaO2 of 9.8 kPa (11-13)

      Correct Answer: A respiratory rate of 32/min

      Explanation:

      CURB-65 is a clinical prediction score that has been validated for predicting mortality in community-acquired pneumonia. It is comprised of five features which are given a point if present on the patient.
      C=confusion
      U=urea >7mmol/L
      R=respiratory rate >30/min or more
      B=blood pressure (SBP)<90mmHg or (DBP)<60mmHg.
      Lastly, the patient gets a point if he/she is 65-year-old or older. The score provides guidance for management:
      0-1: Treat as an outpatient
      2: Consider a short stay in hospital or watch very closely as an outpatient
      3-5: Requires hospitalization with consideration as to whether they need to be in the intensive care unit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      122.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (1/1) 100%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular System (1/3) 33%
Hepatobiliary System (0/1) 0%
Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Passmed