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Question 1
Correct
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What happens first during depolarisation of the membrane potential?
Your Answer: Gated Na channels open allowing the influx of Na
Explanation:Generation of an action potential in response to a stimulus is a result of a previously maintained resting membrane potential (RMP). Generation of resting membrane potential is mediated mainly by potassium ions. Several membrane proteins maintain RMP by transport of ions in and out of cell. Na+/K+ ATPase pump maintains a concentration gradient of Na+ and K+ ions. Na+ concentration in extracellular fluid is higher compared to intracellular fluid and K+ ion concentration is higher intracellularly. Generation of an action potential facilitates opening of Na+ ion channels which allow for Na+ to diffuse inside the cell according to the concentration gradient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of memantine?
Your Answer: NMDA antagonist
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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Where are Lewy bodies commonly located within the basal ganglia in individuals with Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: The pars compacta
Explanation:The midbrain contains a section called the pars compacta, which is made up of neurons that produce dopamine and is situated next to the pars reticulata. Parkinson’s disease is identified by the loss of these dopamine-producing neurons in this area.
Parkinson’s Disease Pathology
Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects the central nervous system. The pathology of Parkinson’s disease is very similar to that of Lewy body dementia. The macroscopic features of Parkinson’s disease include pallor of the substantia nigra (midbrain) and locus coeruleus (pons). The microscopic changes include the presence of Lewy bodies, which are intracellular aggregates of alpha-synuclein. Additionally, there is a loss of dopaminergic cells from the substantia nigra pars compacta. These changes contribute to the motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Understanding the pathology of Parkinson’s disease is crucial for developing effective treatments and improving the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 4
Correct
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What type of tremor is associated with damage to the cerebellum?
Your Answer: Intention tremor
Explanation:Types of Tremor
Essential Tremor
Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.
Parkinsonian Tremor
This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.
Cerebellar Tremor
Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).
Psychogenic Tremor
Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.
Physiologic Tremor
This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.
It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.
Type of Tremor Frequency
Intention 2-3Hz
Parkinsonian 5Hz
Essential 7Hz
Physiological 10Hz
Psychogenic variable
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic has the strongest evidence to support its use in preventing postoperative delirium?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification?
Your Answer: Intermetamorphosis
Correct Answer: Cotard's syndrome
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that they are deceased of do not exist.
Delusional Misidentification Syndrome
Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Your Answer: ALP
Correct Answer: CPK
Explanation:Elevated levels of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) are observed in NMS.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the highest?
Your Answer: Old men
Correct Answer: Young men
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer: Affected individuals rarely survive past the age of 5
Correct Answer: Short stature is characteristic
Explanation:Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Unique Characteristics
Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is a deletion of genetic material from the paternal chromosome 15. This condition is a classic example of imprinting, where the expression of certain genes is dependent on whether they are inherited from the mother of father. The syndrome is characterized by several unique features, including hyperphagia (excessive eating) and obesity, short stature, delayed puberty, hypogonadism, infertility, learning difficulties, and compulsive behavior such as skin picking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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In what stage of the cell cycle does the process of DNA replication occur?
Your Answer: M phase
Correct Answer: S phase
Explanation:Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division
Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.
During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.
In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.
Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 11
Correct
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Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of acetylcholine from the synapse?
Your Answer: Acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:Acetylcholinesterase is the enzyme that is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine into choline and acetate. Both of these molecules are transported back to the presynaptic neuron to be synthesized again. This enzyme is attached to the collagen fibers of the basement membrane in the synaptic cleft.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?
Your Answer: Openness to experience
Correct Answer: Carefulness
Explanation:The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been informed that her mother has frontotemporal dementia with parkinsonism. She is curious about the likelihood of inheriting the same condition. What genetic mutation is linked to this disorder?
Your Answer: SERPINA1 gene mutation
Correct Answer: MAPT gene mutation
Explanation:Down’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, also known as trisomy 21. This genetic condition is characterized by developmental delays, intellectual disability, and distinct physical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient in her 60s with psoriasis has observed that her condition has deteriorated since commencing a new medication. What factor would you suspect to be the most likely cause of exacerbating her psoriasis?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Medications that can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms include:
– Lithium
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
– Beta blockers
– Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitorsLithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?
Your Answer: CN 3 - 12
Explanation:The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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After the death of his grandfather, a young man decides to take over his grandfather's business. This surprises the grandmother as the grandson always expressed his dislike for his grandfather and never showed any interest in the business. The grandmother inquires about his decision and senses that the grandson is at ease with his negative feelings towards his grandfather and does not seem to feel any remorse. What defense mechanism is likely underlying the grandson's behavior?
Your Answer: Repression
Correct Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:Undoing and sublimation are two psychological concepts that are often mistaken for each other. While both involve a person’s attempt to deal with negative thoughts of emotions, there is a key difference between the two.
In undoing, a person tries to undo of neutralize their own unacceptable thoughts, emotions, of behaviors. This is often driven by feelings of guilt or remorse over something they have done of felt. The goal is to make amends and alleviate the negative feelings associated with their actions.
On the other hand, sublimation involves turning negative emotions into positive ones. However, unlike undoing, the person does not necessarily feel guilty of remorseful about their emotions. Instead, they may see their emotions as justified and seek to channel them into more positive outlets.
Therefore, while both undoing and sublimation involve coping with negative emotions, the key difference lies in the underlying motivation and feelings associated with the process.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What was one of the 'four humours' in classical Greek medicine?
Your Answer: Bone marrow
Correct Answer: Black bile
Explanation:The ancient Greeks believed that the body’s health of illness was determined by the balance of four humours: black bile, yellow bile, blood, and phlegm. Each humour was linked to a specific mental state, with an excess of black bile being associated with a melancholic mood, which is where we get the word melancholy from.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Based on the provided information, what is the probable diagnosis for Mr Smith's previous mental health condition, given his lifelong tendencies towards perfectionism and high standards that have caused conflicts in his personal and professional life, as well as strained relationships with family members?
Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive/anankastic personality disorder
Explanation:The consistent and long-standing nature of this behavior suggests that it may be indicative of a personality of developmental disorder. According to the DSM-IV criteria for obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, individuals may exhibit a pervasive preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control in various contexts, often at the expense of flexibility, efficiency, and openness. To meet the criteria for this disorder, an individual must display at least four of the following behaviors: excessive concern with details, rules, lists, order, of schedules; perfectionism that interferes with task completion; excessive devotion to work and productivity; over-conscientiousness and inflexibility regarding morality, ethics, of values; difficulty discarding worthless objects; reluctance to delegate tasks of work with others; a miserly spending style; and rigidity and stubbornness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which symptom is most commonly associated with occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer: Urinary incontinence
Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Explanation:Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion
The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A middle-aged female with Alzheimer's dementia is referred by their GP due to problems with agitation. There is no evidence of delirium and her sleep pattern is normal. Underlying causes have been excluded and a trial of both risperidone and quetiapine has been ineffective. What would be the reasonable next option?
Your Answer: Melatonin
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:The Maudsley Guidelines recommend trying Donepezil. Melatonin is only recommended for sleep disturbances, while Diazepam, Amitriptyline, and Valproate are not recommended.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the AUDIT questionnaire?
Your Answer: A score above 5 is diagnostic of alcohol dependence
Correct Answer: It includes a total of 10 questions
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following symptoms in the PANSS scale for schizophrenia is classified as a positive symptom?
Your Answer: Disturbance of volition
Correct Answer: Conceptual disorganisation
Explanation:The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What tool was created by the World Health Organization to aid in identifying alcohol dependence in primary healthcare settings?
Your Answer: FAST
Correct Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What statement accurately describes the ECG?
Your Answer: A normal PR interval is between 0.3 and 0.6 seconds
Correct Answer: T waves are flat and prolonged in hypokalemia
Explanation:ECG Changes Associated with Chlorpromazine
Chlorpromazine is a psychotropic medication that has been associated with various ECG changes. One of the most notable changes is repolarization changes, which can be seen as ST segment and T wave changes. Additionally, chlorpromazine has been linked to heart blocks, which can be detected by a prolonged PR interval.
Another significant ECG finding associated with chlorpromazine is QTc prolongation. This is a potentially dangerous condition that can lead to torsades de pointes, a type of ventricular tachycardia that can be life-threatening. Other medications that have been linked to QTc prolongation include a wide range of antipsychotics and antidepressants.
It is important to note that not all patients who take chlorpromazine will experience ECG changes. However, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risks and monitor patients closely for any signs of cardiac abnormalities. If ECG changes are detected, the medication may need to be adjusted of discontinued to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the typical artery that is blocked in cases of Alexia without agraphia?
Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Explanation:Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 26
Correct
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Concerning the sleep-wake cycle, Melatonin is secreted by which structure in the brain following which environmental conditions?
Your Answer: Pineal gland, darkness
Explanation:Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland located in the midline attached to the posterior roof of the third ventricle in the brain. Melatonin affects circadian rhythm in the body or the sleep wake cycle. The precursor to melatonin is serotonin and the rate limiting enzyme that converts serotonin to melatonin is low during the day time and reaches its peak during the night.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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A middle-aged woman presents with concerns about a possible bipolar disorder diagnosis. Upon reviewing her psychiatric history, it is noted that she has a long standing pattern of impulsive self-harm, which has not been linked to any treatable mental illness. This behavior dates back to her teenage years and often occurs during crises in tumultuous romantic relationships. Additionally, she has a history of child protection involvement due to abuse. The patient reports feeling constantly unhappy and experiencing extreme emotional reactions that frighten those around her. She frequently falls deeply in love, but these relationships inevitably become abusive. She is unsure of her sexual orientation and struggles with a sense of identity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Impulsive-unstable personality disorder - borderline type
Explanation:Borderline personality disorder is often a result of childhood abuse of neglect, according to research. In the ICD-10, impulsive-unstable personality disorder is divided, and borderline PD is distinguished by a fundamental uncertainty about identity. Emotional instability is a common trait, and the patient’s self-image, goals, and internal preferences, including sexual preferences, are often unclear of disturbed. Chronic feelings of emptiness are also common. The patient may have a tendency to engage in unstable relationships, leading to emotional crises and efforts to avoid abandonment. Suicidal threats of self-harm may occur without obvious triggers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 28
Correct
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What is the most likely diagnosis when an MRI shows high signal in the medial aspects of both thalami that is bilateral and symmetrical?
Your Answer: Variant CJD
Explanation:The pulvinar sign seen on radiological imaging can indicate several possible conditions, including Alper’s Syndrome, cat-scratch disease, and post-infectious encephalitis. It may also be present in cases of M/V2 subtype of sporadic CJD, thalamic infarctions, and top-of-the-basilar ischemia. However, when considering vCJD, the pulvinar sign should be evaluated in the appropriate clinical context.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.
vCJD:
– Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
– Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
– MRI shows pulvinar sign
– EEG shows generalized slowing
– Originates from infected meat products
– Affects younger people (age 25-30)CJD:
– Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
– Presents with neurological symptoms
– MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
– EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
– Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
– Affects older people (age 55-65)Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 29
Correct
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What is a true statement about multisystem atrophy?
Your Answer: Associated Parkinson's symptoms respond poorly to levodopa
Explanation:Parkinson plus syndromes, including multisystem atrophy, exhibit a limited efficacy towards Parkinson’s treatment, such as levodopa.
Multisystem Atrophy: A Parkinson Plus Syndrome
Multisystem atrophy is a type of Parkinson plus syndrome that is characterized by three main features: Parkinsonism, autonomic failure, and cerebellar ataxia. It can present in three different ways, including Shy-Drager Syndrome, Striatonigral degeneration, and Olivopontocerebellar atrophy, each with varying degrees of the three main features.
Macroscopic features of multisystem atrophy include pallor of the substantia nigra, greenish discoloration and atrophy of the putamen, and cerebellar atrophy. Microscopic features include the presence of Papp-Lantos bodies, which are alpha-synuclein inclusions found in oligodendrocytes in the substantia nigra, cerebellum, and basal ganglia.
Overall, multisystem atrophy is a complex and debilitating condition that affects multiple systems in the body, leading to a range of symptoms and challenges for patients and their caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about opioid receptors?
Your Answer: Naloxone selectively blocks kappa receptors but not mu receptors
Correct Answer: Dependence is mediated through the mu receptor
Explanation:Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications
Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.
There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.
Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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