00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did...

    Incorrect

    • During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did not find the appendix on entering the peritoneal cavity. She, however, remained calm as she knew she could find it by:

      Your Answer: Following the course of the appendiceal artery

      Correct Answer: Looking at the confluence of the taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The vermiform appendix arises from the apex of the caecum. Although it has a constant base, it can pass in one of several directions such as upward behind the caecum, to the left behind the ileum and mesentery or downward into the lesser pelvis. It is retained in place by a peritoneal fold, the mesoenteriole derived from the left leaf of the mesentery. Taenia coli meet at the appendix which is the terminal portion of the caecum. The appendix is below the ileocecal valve, not above. It is not near the right colic artery (which supplies the ascending colon). It would not be found by removing a layer of the jejuno-ileum and is not in the pelvic brim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the: ...

    Correct

    • The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The fundus of the stomach receives blood supply from the same artery as...

    Incorrect

    • The fundus of the stomach receives blood supply from the same artery as the greater curvature of the stomach. Which of the following arteries when ligated will disrupt blood supply to the fundus of the stomach through this artery?

      Your Answer: Left gastroepiploic

      Correct Answer: Splenic

      Explanation:

      The fundus of the stomach along with the greater curvature of the stomach receive blood supply from the short gastric artery. The short gastric artery arises from the end of the splenic artery. The ligation of the splenic artery therefore would cause a disruption of blood supply to the fundus of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?

      Your Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium

      Explanation:

      The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left middle suprarenal artery originate?

      Your Answer: Splenic artery

      Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      Middle suprarenal arteries arise from either side of the abdominal aorta, opposite the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Correct

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E...

    Correct

    • A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which...

    Correct

    • A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?

      Your Answer: Perineum

      Explanation:

      Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the...

    Correct

    • A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?

      Your Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Explanation:

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.

      The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.

      The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.

      A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      19.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (6/10) 60%
Anatomy (6/10) 60%
Passmed