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  • Question 1 - Which of the following ionic changes is associated with the ventricular myocyte action...

    Correct

    • Which of the following ionic changes is associated with the ventricular myocyte action potential's initial repolarization phase?

      Your Answer: Ceased Na+ and increase K+ conductances

      Explanation:

      The Purkinje system, as well as the action potentials of ventricular and atrial myocytes, have the same ionic changes. It lasts about 200 milliseconds and has a resting membrane potential, as well as fast depolarisation and plateau phases.

      There are five stages to the process:

      Increased Na+ and decreased K+ conductance in Phase 0 (rapid depolarisation).
      1st phase (initial repolarisation) : Na+ conductance decreased, while K+ conductance increased.
      Phase two (plateau phase) : Ca2+ conductance increased
      Phase three (repolarisation phase) : Lower Ca2+ conductance and higher K+ conductance
      4th Phase (resting membrane potential) : K+ conductance increased, Na+ conductance decreased, and Ca2+ conductance decreased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      285.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For...

    Correct

    • An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.

      The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.  
      End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
      Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa

      Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. 

      Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Increase the FGF

      Explanation:

      End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.

      The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.

      Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.

      There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
      1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
      B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
      2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
      3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
      4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is...

    Incorrect

    • A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is correct about it?

      Your Answer: Half the patients do not know which treatment they receive

      Correct Answer: The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment does not know which treatment the patient has been given

      Explanation:

      A ‘double blind crossover study’ happens when every patient receive both treatments.

      It is incorrect to say that only half of the patients do not know which treatment they receive because in a double blind placebo control clinical trial ALL of the patients are blind to their treatment choice .

      If some of the patients are not treated, they would be aware that they were not being treated and it could not be considered a blind trial.

      In a double blind placebo control clinical trial both the clinician and the patient are blind to the treatment choice. The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment, therefore, does not know which treatment the patient has been given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the central chest area, which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He also reports feelings of nausea with no other symptoms. Elevation of the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads upon ECG, leading to a diagnosis of ST-elevation MI.

      What vessel gives rise to the coronary vessels?

      Your Answer: Coronary sinus

      Correct Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.

      The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.

      The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.

      The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.

      The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.

      The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.

      The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery...

    Incorrect

    • One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring.

      The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?

      Your Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Correct Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
      1. Lacrimal nerve
      2. Frontal nerve
      3. Superior ophthalmic vein
      4. Trochlear nerve
      5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      6. Nasociliary nerve*
      7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      8. Abducent nerve*
      9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.

      The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.

      The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.

      She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.

      Which of the following is the cause for this?

      Your Answer: Metaraminol

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to...

    Incorrect

    • Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to be used for an arterial blood gas?

      Your Answer: 2cm inferomedially to the pubic tubercle

      Correct Answer: Mid inguinal point

      Explanation:

      The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man presents to hospital complaining of dysphagia. He is scheduled for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to hospital complaining of dysphagia. He is scheduled for a rigid oesophagoscopy.

      On examination, He is noted to have severe osteoarthritis in his cervical spine resulting in limited rotation and flexion-extension. He has no other neurological signs or symptoms.

      He is given anaesthesia for the procedure, which is complicated by a difficult intubation (Cormack-Lehane 3), but was eventually achieved using a gum elastic bougie.

      After recovering from anaesthesia, he is examined and found to have severe motor weakness of upper limbs, and mild motor weakness of lower limbs, bladder dysfunction and sensory loss of varying degrees below the level of C5.

      What incomplete spinal cord lesion is most likely to be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Posterior spinal artery thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Central cord syndrome

      Explanation:

      Central cord syndrome is the most commonly occurring type of partial spinal cord lesion. It is more likely to occur in older patients with cervical spondylosis and a hyperextension injury. The injury to the spinal cord occurs in the grey matter causing the following symptoms:

      Disproportionally higher motor function weakness in the upper limbs than in lower limbs
      Dysfunction of the bladder
      Degrees of sensory loss below the level of the lesion

      An anterior spinal artery infarction will interrupt the corticospinal tract resulting in paralysis of motor function, loss of pain and temperature sensation, all occurring below the level of the injury.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome occurs as a result of the hemisection of the spinal cord. Its symptoms include ipsilateral upper motor neurone paralysis and loss of proprioception, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.

      Spinal cord infarctions rarely occur in the posterior spinal artery.

      Cauda equina syndrome occurs as a result of compression of the lumbosacral spinal nerve roots below the level of the conus medullaris. Injury to these nerves will cause partial or complete loss of movement and sensation in this distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true?

      Your Answer: Exerts its anticoagulant effect by binding with Factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Is excreted in the urine

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) creates a complex by binding to antithrombin. This complex binds with and inactivates factor Xa.

      There is less risk of bleeding with LMWH because it binds less to platelets, endothelium and von Willebrand factor.

      LMW binds Xa more readily. The shorter chains are less likely to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.

      There is need for monitoring in renal impairment because LMHW is excreted in the urine (and partly by hepatic metabolism)

      LMWH have been shown to be as efficacious as unfractionated heparin. It is also safer and have improved inpatient stay and reduced hospital cost.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:

      Your Answer: Pain - 10 mA

      Correct Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA

      Explanation:

      There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

      Current Effect
      1 mA Tingling
      5 mA Pain
      15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
      50 mA Respiratory arrest
      100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Incorrect

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Vecuronium and gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.

      If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate will increase

      Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

      FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

      Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - All of the following statements are true about blood clotting except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true about blood clotting except:

      Your Answer: The bleeding time provides an assessment of platelet function

      Correct Answer: Administration of aprotinin during liver transplantation surgery prolongs survival

      Explanation:

      Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
      Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.

      The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
      1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
      Minor role in clotting
      Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
      Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
      Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
      Factor 12 activates Factor 11
      Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 10

      2. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
      In tissue damage:
      Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
      Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10

      3. Common pathway
      Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      4. Fibrinolysis
      Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of:

      Your Answer: L4

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord and the vertebral canal are as long as each other in early fetal life. The length of the cord increases faster than the growth of the vertebrae during development. By the time of birth, the spinal cord is at the level of the lower border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra, compared to its original position at the level of the 2nd coccygeal vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant...

    Incorrect

    • A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)

      Correct Answer: aPTT

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.

      D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.

      A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.

      Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.

      Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.

      Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old man presents worried about his risk of motor neurone disease. No...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents worried about his risk of motor neurone disease. No symptoms have developed, but his father suffered from motor neurone disease. Recently, his cousin has also been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. He searched the internet for screening tests for motor neurone disease and found a blood test called ‘neuron’, and requests to have it done. You search this blood test and find a prospective study going on evaluating the potential benefits of this blood test. On average, this test diagnosed patients with the disease 8 months earlier than the patients who are diagnosed on the basis of their clinical symptoms. The patients diagnosed using this neuron test also survived, on average, 48 months from the diagnosis, whereas the patients diagnosed clinically survived an average of 39 months from the diagnosis. Considering the clear benefits, you decide to have it done on the patient.

      Which of the following options best relate to the above scenario?

      Your Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Correct Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      Hypochondriasis is an illness anxiety disorder, and describes excessively worriedness about the presence of a disease. While the woman is concerned about her possibility of developing motor neurone disease, she understands that no symptoms have yet appeared. Hypochondriasis involves patients who refuse to accept that they don’t have the disease, even if the results come back negative.

      Late Look Bias occurs when the data is gathered or analysed at an inappropriate time e.g. when many of the subjects suffering from a fatal disease have died. This type of biasness might occur in some retrospective studies of motor neurone disease, but is not applicable to this prospective study.

      In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically. Of all the options, lead time-bias is a better answer.

      The Hawthorne Effect refers to groups modifying their behaviour simply because they are aware of being observed. Any differences in the behaviour have not been mentioned in the question, and it is highly unlikely that a change in patient’s behaviour would have affected their length of survival in this case.

      The correct option is lead-time bias. Even if the new blood test diagnoses the disease earlier, it doesn’t affect the outcome, as the survival time was still on average 43 months from the onset of symptoms in both groups. With the help of blood test, the disease was only detected 8 months earlier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman with a BMI of 24 kg/m2 consumes four glasses of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a BMI of 24 kg/m2 consumes four glasses of wine on an empty stomach. Her serum alcohol are levels measured over the following five hours. The serum alcohol level of 30-year-old man with the same BMI and alcohol consumption is also measured over the same duration.

      The peak concentration of alcohol is found to be greater in the woman than in the man.

      Which of these offers best explanation for this observation?

      Your Answer: Influence of sex hormones on metabolism

      Correct Answer: Lower volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      The blood alcohol concentration depends on:

      -The rate of alcohol absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
      -The volume of distribution of alcohol in the body, and
      -The rate of elimination of alcohol from the body.

      Total body water is approximately 50% in a female as compared to 60% in a typical male. This means that the volume of distribution of alcohol is lower in female compared with men. This is the principal reason for higher peak in alcohol levels.

      About 4% of ingested alcohol is metabolised by the liver accounting for first pass metabolism and 0.4% is metabolised by gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). The absorbed alcohol is NOT distributed to fat cells but it is distributed throughout the water compartments (plasma, interstitial and intracellular) of the body. Women have very little gastric ADH, which further influences this exaggerated rise.

      85-98% of the alcohol is oxidised by the liver to acetaldehyde and then to acetate. The metabolic pathway initially observes first order kinetics and then saturation or zero order kinetics leading to peaks in alcohol levels.

      Clearance of ethanol per unit lean body mass is lower in male. The calculated alcohol elimination rate and liver volume per kilogram of lean body mass were 33% and 38% higher in women than in men, respectively.

      Available evidence in the literature about the relationship of alcohol metabolism to the phases of the menstrual cycle is conflicting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Concerning platelets one of the following is true ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning platelets one of the following is true

      Your Answer: Contain adenosine triphosphate and serotonin

      Correct Answer: Are formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes and they are encapsulated by membrane.

      They have no nucleus but are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. adenosine diphosphate and serotonin are 2 of its content.

      Because they have no nucleus, they are not able to produce new proteins. This is why aspirin and other drugs affect function for their entire lifespan after exposure. Its lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.

      Platelets does NOT PRODUCE prostacyclin but are able to produce nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now,...

    Incorrect

    • Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now, he presents to his general physician as it has been the same for the past few weeks.

      A complication is noted in the post-thyroidectomy report regarding an injury to the external laryngeal nerve.

      Which muscle has been affected due to loss of innervation by the damaged nerve, and whose improper functioning can lead to hoarseness in the patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Vocalis

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve, except the cricothyroid muscle.

      Cricothyroid muscle is located deep in the anterior neck, between the cricoid and thyroid cartilage and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve. Any injury to this muscle can cause paralysis and lead to hoarseness. When cricothyroid muscle contracts, it leads to tightening, stretching and thinning of the vocal folds. This produces higher-pitched sounds during vocalization.

      A patient experiencing hoarseness due to possible injury to the external laryngeal nerve should be reassured that the hoarseness will resolve in time due to increased compensation from the other muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds.

      Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?

      Your Answer: Low arterial oxygen tension

      Correct Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.

      Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.

      2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?

      Your Answer: 10 mg per 1000 ml

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

      % solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ 10 mg/ml

      Examples:

        • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1214.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.

      Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An ECG shows tall tented T waves, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.
      The shape of the T wave is as a result of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 25 - In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by...

    Incorrect

    • In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.

      Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.

      Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 ml

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

      The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.

      What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 mL

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

      The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

      A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

      The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The external urethral sphincter functions to provide voluntary control of urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.

      It receives its innervation from the branches of the pudendal nerve which originate from S2, S3 and S4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heavy smoker

      Explanation:

      A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.

      It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.

      Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.

      Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.

      Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.

      Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.

      Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

      Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 30 - Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting a chest tube drain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External circumference (mm)

      Explanation:

      Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.

      A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.

      A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.

      When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (1/6) 17%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/1) 100%
Statistical Methods (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (0/4) 0%
Pharmacology (0/4) 0%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/3) 33%
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