-
Question 1
Correct
-
The sella turcica is a saddle-shaped depression in which bone that houses the pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Sphenoid
Explanation:The sphenoid bone contains a saddle-shaped depression known as the sella turcica. The anterior cranial fossa is formed by the frontal, ethmoid, and a portion of the sphenoid bones. The middle cranial fossa is formed by the sphenoid and temporal bones, while the posterior cranial fossa is formed by the occipital and temporal bones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which TCA is commonly linked to discontinuation symptoms?
Your Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A chromosome that has a very short p arm, making it difficult to observe, is known as:
Your Answer: Submetacentric
Correct Answer: Telocentric
Explanation:Understanding Centromeres
A centromere is a crucial part of DNA that connects two sister chromatids. It plays a vital role in cell division by keeping the sister chromatids aligned and allowing the chromosomes to be lined up during metaphase. The position of the centromere divides the chromosome into two arms, the long (q) and the short (p). Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. Metacentric chromosomes have arms of roughly equal length, and they can be formed by Robertsonian translocations. Acrocentric chromosomes can also be involved in Robertsonian translocations. Monocentric chromosomes have only one centromere and form a narrow constriction, while holocentric chromosomes have the entire length of the chromosome acting as the centromere. Understanding the role and classification of centromeres is essential in comprehending the process of cell division.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 35-year-old firefighter comes to the hospital six weeks after responding to a major fire incident. He is worried that he might be suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
What symptom would be the most indicative of this diagnosis?Your Answer: Flashbacks of the traumatic event
Explanation:While EMDR can be beneficial for various disorders, its effectiveness does not hold any diagnostic significance for PTSD. The presence of flashbacks of distressing reliving experiences is the primary requirement for diagnosing PTSD, and other symptoms such as autonomic disturbance, avoidance of work, and increased sensitivity to noise are not necessary for diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following pairs of acronyms is incorrect?
Your Answer: BPRS - Brief psychiatric rating scale
Correct Answer: YMRS - Yates Mental Retardation scale
Explanation:The acronym YMRS stands for the Young Mania Rating Scale.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 16 year old teenager wants to pursue a career in art, but their parents insist that they must focus on becoming a doctor of engineer. The teenager is not allowed to take art classes and is forbidden from participating in any art competitions. The parents also dictate what clothes the teenager wears and how they style their hair, expecting them to look presentable at all times.
According to Erikson's theory, what developmental stage is being challenged by the parents' actions?Your Answer: Identity vs. role confusion
Explanation:Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as a side effect?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
How would you describe the delusional world of a woman who seems to lack any grasp of reality?
Your Answer: Juxtaposed
Correct Answer: Autistic
Explanation:Delusional Structure
Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.
The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Who first recognized the four principles of therapeutic communities as democracy, permissiveness, reality confrontation, and communalism?
Your Answer: Rex Haigh
Correct Answer: Robert Rapoport
Explanation:Important Figures in the Development of Therapeutic Communities
Therapeutic communities have been an important approach to treating mental health and addiction issues for decades. Robert Rapoport introduced the four principles of therapeutic communities in his 1960 book Community as Doctor: New Perspectives on Therapeutic Community. These principles include reality confrontation, permissiveness, democracy, and communalism. In the late 1990s, Rex Haigh updated Rapoport’s four themes and added a fifth principle, attachment.
Wilfred Bion led some of the earliest experiments in the 1940s into therapeutic communities in the UK. The Northfield experiments were an attempt to rehabilitate soldiers into the army. However, at the time, these experiments were viewed as unsuccessful and were stopped after six weeks.
Tom Main is credited with coining the term ‘therapeutic community’ in his 1946 paper The hospital as a therapeutic institution. It is important to note that Donald Winnicott, who coined the term a good enough mother, is not directly related to the development of therapeutic communities.
These figures have played a significant role in the development and evolution of therapeutic communities, which continue to be an important approach to mental health and addiction treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
In what century did psychiatry become established as a distinct medical field?
Your Answer: 17th century
Correct Answer: 18th century
Explanation:Psychiatry emerged as a distinct medical field in the late 1700s, leading to the establishment of specialized asylums designed to provide therapeutic care for individuals with mental illnesses who were previously confined in institutions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which structure is thought to play a major role in processing rewards?
Your Answer: Nucleus accumbens
Explanation:Drug addiction is closely linked to reward processing, which is primarily regulated by the nucleus accumbens and the ventral tegmental area (VTA).
The Basal Ganglia: Functions and Disorders
The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical structures that play a crucial role in controlling movement and some cognitive processes. The components of the basal ganglia include the striatum (caudate, putamen, nucleus accumbens), subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra (divided into pars compacta and pars reticulata). The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the lenticular nucleus.
The basal ganglia are connected in a complex loop, with the cortex projecting to the striatum, the striatum to the internal segment of the globus pallidus, the internal segment of the globus pallidus to the thalamus, and the thalamus back to the cortex. This loop is responsible for regulating movement and cognitive processes.
However, problems with the basal ganglia can lead to several conditions. Huntington’s chorea is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus, while Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper deposition in the basal ganglia. Parkinson’s disease is associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra, and hemiballism results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus.
In summary, the basal ganglia are a crucial part of the brain that regulate movement and some cognitive processes. Disorders of the basal ganglia can lead to significant neurological conditions that affect movement and other functions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Choose the correct answer: The cerebrocerebellum…
Your Answer: Output to the thalamus, red nucleus and motor cortex is via the superior cerebellar peduncle
Correct Answer: All options are correct
Explanation:Cerebrocerebellum is comprised of two lateral regions, the cerebellar hemispheres and communicates with the cerebral cortex. It is principally responsible for controlling coordination of movement. Three fiber bundles carry the input and output of the cerebellum. There are three cerebellar peduncles with different connections and functions. The three are mainly, superior, middle and inferior. The superior cerebellar peduncle is also known as the “Brachium conjunctivum”. It predominantly contains efferent fibers from the cerebellar nuclei, as well as some afferents from the spinocerebellar tract. The efferent pathways include cerebellorubral, dentatothalamic, and fastigioreticular fibers. These are tracts projecting from the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus. The middle cerebellar peduncle connects to the pontine nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts run through the superior cerebellar peduncle
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
What is a true statement about antihistamines?
Your Answer: First generation antihistamines should be avoided in people at risk of angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:First generation antihistamines should be avoided in individuals who are at risk of angle closure glaucoma due to their tendency to cause anticholinergic side effects. Pupil dilation (mydriasis) caused by these medications can increase the risk of angle closure glaucoma in individuals with narrow anterior chamber angles, but this is not a concern for those with open angle glaucoma.
Antihistamines: Types and Uses
Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.
There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman with a three month history of 'strange actions' reports experiencing her thoughts being spoken out loud simultaneously as they happen. What term describes this symptom?
Your Answer: Gedankenlautwerden
Explanation:Gedankenlautwerden is a symptom of schizophrenia where one hears their own thoughts spoken just before of at the same time as they occur. It is different from écho de la pensée, which refers to hearing one’s own thoughts spoken aloud after they have occurred. Functional hallucinations are triggered by an external stimulus in the same modality, while thought broadcasting involves the belief that someone of something has access to the patient’s thoughts. Extracampine hallucinations are those perceived as coming from outside the sensory field, such as hearing astronauts speaking on the moon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night. She spots what appears to be a figure of a person in the distance and decides to cross the street. Upon approaching, she realizes that it was just a shadow created by a nearby streetlight. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?
Your Answer: An illusion
Explanation:An affect illusion is when a person’s perception is distorted by the shadow cast from a tree. Hallucinations, on the other hand, occur when there is no external stimulus present. It is important to note that a delusion is a belief, rather than a perception.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
How can we differentiate between an organic and functional illness, and what signs of symptoms are more indicative of an organic illness?
Your Answer: Anhedonia
Correct Answer: Perseveration
Explanation:Organic processes are indicated by the presence of visual hallucinations.
Perseveration: The Clinical Symptoms in Chronic Schizophrenia and Organic Dementia
Perseveration is a common behavior observed in patients with organic brain involvement. It is characterized by the conscious continuation of an act of an idea. This behavior is frequently seen in patients with delirium, epilepsy, dementia, schizophrenia, and normal individuals under extreme fatigue of drug-induced states.
In chronic schizophrenia and organic dementia, perseveration is a prominent symptom. Patients with these conditions tend to repeat the same words, phrases, of actions over and over again, even when it is no longer appropriate of relevant to the situation. This behavior can be frustrating for caregivers and family members, and it can also interfere with the patient’s ability to communicate effectively.
In schizophrenia, perseveration is often associated with disorganized thinking and speech. Patients may jump from one topic to another without any logical connection, and they may repeat the same words of phrases in an attempt to express their thoughts. In organic dementia, perseveration is a sign of cognitive decline and memory impairment. Patients may repeat the same stories of questions, forgetting that they have already asked of answered them.
Overall, perseveration is a common symptom in patients with organic brain involvement, and it can have a significant impact on their daily functioning and quality of life. Understanding this behavior is essential for effective management and treatment of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
What is the purpose of using Raven's Progressive Matrices test?
Your Answer: Orientation
Correct Answer: General intelligence
Explanation:The Raven’s Progressive Matrices test assesses general intelligence without the use of verbal language.
The field of psychiatry uses various cognitive tests to assess different areas of cognition, including premorbid intelligence, intelligence, memory, attention, language, and others. Some commonly used tests include the National Adult Reading Test (NART) for premorbid intelligence, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) and Raven’s Progressive Matrices for intelligence, the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure for memory, and the Stroop test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Tower of London, and Continuous Performance Tasks for attention. The Boston naming test and Animal fluency are used to assess language skills. The Halstead-Reitan battery is used specifically for assessing brain damage. These tests are often included in the MRCPsych exams.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Which compound was created through the synthesis of chlorpromazine?
Your Answer: Cade
Correct Answer: Charpentier
Explanation:In 1951, Charpentier in France synthesised Chlorpromazine with the aim of creating a centrally acting antihistamine to assist with general anaesthesia. Later, studies conducted by Delay and Deniker provided evidence for its effectiveness in treating schizophrenia.
A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which of the options below is the least probable cause of a notable increase in a patient's prolactin levels?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Hyperprolactinemia is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medication, but it is rare with antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, so dopamine antagonists, such as antipsychotics, can increase prolactin levels. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related, and some antipsychotics cause more significant increases than others. Hyperprolactinemia can cause symptoms such as galactorrhea, menstrual difficulties, gynecomastia, hypogonadism, and sexual dysfunction. Long-standing hyperprolactinemia in psychiatric patients can increase the risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer, although there is no conclusive evidence that antipsychotic medication increases the risk of breast malignancy and mortality. Some antipsychotics, such as clozapine and aripiprazole, have a low risk of causing hyperprolactinemia, while typical antipsychotics and risperidone have a high risk. Monitoring of prolactin levels is recommended before starting antipsychotic therapy and at three months and annually thereafter. Antidepressants rarely cause hyperprolactinemia, and routine monitoring is not recommended. Symptomatic hyperprolactinemia has been reported with most antidepressants, except for a few, such as mirtazapine, agomelatine, bupropion, and vortioxetine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
An endocrinologist conducts a study to determine if there is a correlation between a patient's age and their blood pressure. Assuming both age and blood pressure are normally distributed, what statistical test would be most suitable to use?
Your Answer: Pearson's product-moment coefficient
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed and the study aims to evaluate the correlation between two variables, the most suitable test to use is Pearson’s product-moment coefficient. On the other hand, if the data is non-parametric, Spearman’s coefficient would be more appropriate.
Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 28-year-old female is admitted after a failed suicide attempt after overdosing on paracetamol. What single factor indicates a heightened risk of future suicide?
Your Answer: Previous history of overdose
Explanation:The single feature that best suggests a high risk of future suicide is a history of previous suicide attempts. Research has shown that individuals who have attempted suicide in the past are at a significantly higher risk of future suicide attempts and completed suicide. This is because suicide attempts are often a sign of underlying mental health issues, such as depression, anxiety, of substance abuse, that can persist and increase the risk of suicidal behavior. Additionally, previous suicide attempts may indicate a lack of effective coping mechanisms of support systems, which can further increase the risk of future suicide attempts. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to assess and address the underlying mental health issues and provide appropriate support and treatment to reduce the risk of future suicide attempts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A teenager you are caring for is prescribed imipramine for depression. What combination of side-effects is most commonly observed in patients taking this type of antidepressant medication?
Your Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth
Explanation:Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.
Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.
Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is a personality disorder that falls under cluster A?
Your Answer: Antisocial
Correct Answer: Paranoid
Explanation:Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
Which symptom is the strongest indicator of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Your Answer: Increased muscle tone
Explanation:NMS can be identified by three primary symptoms: hyperthermia, rigidity, and elevated creatine phosphokinase concentration. If these symptoms are not present, the diagnosis of NMS should be reconsidered as other symptoms may be present in patients taking neuroleptics without having NMS. This information was reported by P Adnet in the British Journal of Anaesthesia in 2000.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which one of these organs is not classified as a circumventricular organ?
Your Answer: Area postrema
Correct Answer: The olive
Explanation:Understanding the Blood Brain Barrier
The blood brain barrier (BBB) is a crucial component of the brain’s defense system against harmful chemicals and ion imbalances. It is a semi-permeable membrane formed by tight junctions of endothelial cells in the brain’s capillaries, which separates the blood from the cerebrospinal fluid. However, certain areas of the BBB, known as circumventricular organs, are fenestrated to allow neurosecretory products to enter the blood.
When it comes to MRCPsych questions, the focus is on the following aspects of the BBB: the tight junctions between endothelial cells, the ease with which lipid-soluble molecules pass through compared to water-soluble ones, the difficulty large and highly charged molecules face in passing through, the increased permeability of the BBB during inflammation, and the theoretical ability of nasally administered drugs to bypass the BBB.
It is important to remember the specific circumventricular organs where the BBB is fenestrated, including the posterior pituitary and the area postrema. Understanding the BBB’s function and characteristics is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat neurological disorders effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
What is the condition that is identified by the presence of Papp-Lantos bodies?
Your Answer: Multisystem atrophy
Explanation:Multisystem Atrophy: A Parkinson Plus Syndrome
Multisystem atrophy is a type of Parkinson plus syndrome that is characterized by three main features: Parkinsonism, autonomic failure, and cerebellar ataxia. It can present in three different ways, including Shy-Drager Syndrome, Striatonigral degeneration, and Olivopontocerebellar atrophy, each with varying degrees of the three main features.
Macroscopic features of multisystem atrophy include pallor of the substantia nigra, greenish discoloration and atrophy of the putamen, and cerebellar atrophy. Microscopic features include the presence of Papp-Lantos bodies, which are alpha-synuclein inclusions found in oligodendrocytes in the substantia nigra, cerebellum, and basal ganglia.
Overall, multisystem atrophy is a complex and debilitating condition that affects multiple systems in the body, leading to a range of symptoms and challenges for patients and their caregivers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
What is the least expected symptom in a patient who is taking sodium valproate?
Your Answer: Tremor
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis
Explanation:Thrombocytosis would not be an expected finding as valproate typically decreases platelet counts instead of increasing them.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
As the occurrence of a condition decreases, what increases?
Your Answer: Positive predictive value
Correct Answer: Negative predictive value
Explanation:The prevalence of a condition has an impact on both the PPV and NPV. When the prevalence decreases, the PPV also decreases while the NPV increases.
Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of acetylcholine from the synapse?
Your Answer: Choline acetyltransferase
Correct Answer: Acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:Acetylcholinesterase is the enzyme that is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine into choline and acetate. Both of these molecules are transported back to the presynaptic neuron to be synthesized again. This enzyme is attached to the collagen fibers of the basement membrane in the synaptic cleft.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
What factor played a significant role in the shift of psychiatric influence from Europe to the United States during the 20th century?
Your Answer: Second World War
Explanation:The ascent of the National Socialist Party during the 1930s had a negative effect on psychiatry in Germany, which was previously a leading force in European psychiatry. As a result of the Second World War, numerous skilled scientists and psychiatrists fled Germany and sought refuge in the United States. Their contributions were instrumental in establishing the US as the dominant force in both academic and clinical psychiatry.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)