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  • Question 1 - A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness....

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness. He is administered sodium bicarbonate used to treat:

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Sodium bicarbonate is indicated in the management of metabolic acidosis, which may occur in severe renal disease, uncontrolled diabetes, circulatory insufficiency due to shock or severe dehydration, extracorporeal circulation of blood, cardiac arrest and severe primary lactic acidosis. Bicarbonate is given at 50-100 mmol at a time under scrupulous monitoring of the arterial blood gas readings. This intervention, however, has some serious complications including lactic acidosis, and in those cases, should be used with great care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to the casualty after he had fallen from the 3rd floor of a building. An examination carried out revealed tenderness on the left mid-posterior axillary line and low blood pressure. Further palpation revealed a large swelling that protruded downward and medially below the left costal margin. X-rays showed that the 9th and the 10th ribs were fractured near their angles. Considering these results, which abdominal organ was likely injured by the fractured ribs.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The spleen, left kidney, stomach, the splenic flexure of the colon and the suprarenal glands are all in the same quadrant- the left upper quadrant. However, the spleen is the most readily injured organ when there is fracture to the 10th, 11th and the 12th ribs because of its close association with these ribs. This patient exhibits a great indication of a ruptured spleen (tenderness on the left mid and posterior axillary line). The spleen is a thin capsulated organ with a spongy parenchyma, allowing it to bleed profusely in the event of injury. The liver, head of the pancreas and the duodenum are all in the right upper quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 3 - Macrolides are a group of antibiotics commonly used to treat respiratory tract and...

    Incorrect

    • Macrolides are a group of antibiotics commonly used to treat respiratory tract and soft-tissue infections. Which of the following antibiotics is a macrolide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used in the treatment of several bacterial infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin infections, chlamydia infections, pelvic inflammatory disease, and syphilis. It may also be used during pregnancy to prevent Group B streptococcal infection in the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 4 - Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis usually appears between the ages of 20-40 years old and is more frequent in men. It is strongly associated with HLA-B27, along with other spondyloarthropathies, which can be remembered through the mnemonic PAIR (Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, and Reactive arthritis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
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  • Question 5 - Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the...

    Incorrect

    • Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the heart will lead to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased PR interval

      Explanation:

      AV node damage may lead to an increase in the PR interval to as high as 0.25 – 0.40 s (normal = 0.12 – 0.20 s). In the case of severe impairment, there might be a complete failure of passage of impulses leading to complete block. In this case, the atria and ventricles will beat independently of each other.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
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  • Question 6 - A 59-year old gentleman admitted for elective cholecystectomy was found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year old gentleman admitted for elective cholecystectomy was found to have a haemoglobin 12.5 g/dl, haematocrit 37%, mean corpuscular volume 90 fl, platelet count 185 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 32 × 109/l; along with multiple, small mature lymphocytes on peripheral smear. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      CLL or chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is the most common leukaemia seen in the Western world. Twice more common in men than women, the incidence of CLL increases with age. About 75% cases are seen in patients aged more than 60 years. The blood, marrow, spleen and lymph nodes all undergo infiltration, eventually leading to haematopoiesis (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and decreased production of immunoglobulin. In 98% cases, CD+5 B cells undergo malignant transformation.

      Often diagnosed on blood tests while being evaluated for lymphadenopathy, CLL causes symptoms like fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, pallor, dyspnoea on exertion, abdominal fullness or distension. Findings include multiple lymphadenopathy with minimal-to- moderate hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Increased susceptibility to infections is seen. Herpes Zoster is common. Diffuse or maculopapular skin infiltration can also be seen in T-cell CLL.

      Diagnosis is by examination of peripheral blood smear and marrow: hallmark being a sustained, absolute leucocytosis (>5 ×109/l) and increased lymphocytes in the marrow (>30%). Other findings can include hypogammaglobulinemia (<15% of cases) and, rarely, raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). Only 10% cases demonstrate moderate anaemia and/or thrombocytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 7 - Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following enzymes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsin is a protease that is released from the gastric chief cells and acts to degrade proteins into peptides. Released as pepsinogen, it is activated by hydrochloric acid and into pepsin itself. Gastrin and the vagus nerve trigger the release of pepsinogen and HCl when a meal is ingested. Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic environment, especially at a pH of 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected lump in her right breast. On examination, the lump is found to be 1cm, rubbery, mobile with no palpable axillary nodes. Mammography reveals no microcalcifications and the opposite breast appears normal. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      A benign breast tumour, fibroadenoma is common below the age of 30 years and occurs due to oestrogenic excess. It is characterised by proliferation of both glandular and stromal elements. Fibroadenomas are usually solitary and are mobile, not fixed to surrounding structures. The tumour is elastic, nodular and encapsulated with a grey-white cut surface. The two main histological types include intracanalicular and pericanalicular types, with both types often present in the same tumour. In the intracanalicular type, the stromal proliferation component predominates causing compression of ducts making them appear slit-like. In pericanalicular type, the fibrous stroma dominates around the ductal spaces so that they remain oval on cross section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
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  • Question 9 - A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level of the nape of the neck will most likely affect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vibratory sensations from the ipsilateral arm

      Explanation:

      At the level mentioned in the question, the lateral portion of dorsal columns comprises of the fasciculus cuneatus. Axons carrying the sensations of touch, vibration and proprioception from the ipsilateral arm enter the spinal cord and ascend in the fasciculus cuneatus, synapsing in the nucleus cuneatus of the caudal medulla. Secondary neurons from this nucleus give rise to internal arcuate fibres, which decussate and ascend to the thalamus as the medial lemniscus. Tertiary neurons from there project to the ipsilateral somatosensory cortex. Thus, any damage to the fasciculus cuneatus will result in a deficit in tactile, proprioceptive and vibratory sensations in the ipsilateral arm, and not the contralateral arm.

      Fine motor control of the fingers is mainly carried by the ipsilateral lateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Motor control of the contralateral foot is carried by the ipsilateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Lack of sweating of the face could be produced by interruption of sympathetic innervation. Proprioception from the ipsilateral leg is carried by the fasciculus gracilis in the medial part of the dorsal columns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 10 - A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. A full blood count revealed: haematocrit = 30%, erythrocytes = 4 × 106/μ, haemoglobin level = 8 g/dl. To determine the likely cause of his anaemia, red blood cell indices were calculated. Which RBC indices are correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MCHC = haemoglobin concentration/haematocrit

      Explanation:

      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is calculated simply by dividing the haemoglobin concentration (8 g/dl) by the haematocrit (0.3). The normal range is 31–36 g/dl. This patient has a hypochromic anaemia (MCHC = 8/0.3 = 26.7 g/dl). Dividing the haemoglobin concentration × 10 by erythrocyte number yields mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Normal range is 25.4–34.6 pg/cell and this patient has a significantly reduced cellular haemoglobin content (MCH = 8 × 10/4 = 20 pg/cell). Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is calculated by dividing haematocrit × 1000 by erythrocyte number (4 × 106/μl). Normal range is 80–100 fl and this patient has a microcytic anaemia (MCV = 0.3 × 1000/4 = 75 fl). Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia is characteristic for iron-deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
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