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  • Question 1 - Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Scoliosis

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis (aka Von Recklinghausen’s disease) includes: neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma, optic nerve tumours, scoliosis and acoustic neuromas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report that she has had multiple collapsing episodes over the past week. Each time she would collapse with the eyes shut and regain consciousness after 2 to 5 min with general weakness. The collapse is not followed by a post ictal state. The patient feels well and normal between these episodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      A vasovagal episode or vasovagal syncope is the most common form of reflex syncope. Reflex syncope is a general term used to describe types of syncope resulting from a failure in autoregulation of blood pressure, and ultimately, in cerebral perfusion pressure resulting in transient loss of consciousness. The mechanisms responsible for this are complex and involve both depression of cardiac output as well as a decrease in vascular tone. Other types of reflex syncope include carotid sinus syncope and situational syncope, for instance, cough or micturition syncope. Vasovagal syncope may be triggered by pain or emotional upset, although frequently a specific trigger cannot be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      195.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a...

    Correct

    • A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a high likelihood of cystic fibrosis. This diagnosis is associated with a higher risk of developing which of the following?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a life-threatening disorder that causes the build up of thick mucus in the lungs, digestive tract, and other areas of the body. It is a hereditary autosomal-recessive disease caused by mutations of the CFTR gene. Cystic fibrosis eventually results in bronchiectasis which is defined as a permanent dilatation and obstruction of bronchi or bronchioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      341.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Luteinising Hormone

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?

      Your Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Treat with intravenous antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 5 week old boy presents with a history of jerky movements involving...

    Correct

    • A 5 week old boy presents with a history of jerky movements involving both upper and lower limbs. The parents admit that this happens 2-3 times during sleep, without waking him up. He feeds well and doesn’t seem to cry more than normally. He was a term baby, born without any perinatal complications. The neurological examination turns out normal. Parents worry he has seizures as they have a 3 year old nephew with epilepsy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus

      Explanation:

      Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus is a condition characterised by neonatal onset myoclonic jerks during NREM. Characteristic for this disorder is the absence of electroencephalographic findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted to the NICU with suspected congenital TB. Her mother is HIV positive and is on HAART, recently diagnosed with tuberculosis 1 week ago. All of the following are features of congenital tuberculosis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Hepatomegaly

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Congenital TB symptoms typically develop during the second or third week of life and include poor feeding, poor weight gain, cough, lethargy, and irritability. Other symptoms include fever, ear discharge, and skin lesions.Signs of congenital TB include failure to thrive, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, tachypnoea, and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      87.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer: Marfan syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Target lesions

      Correct Answer: Inflammation of fat cells under the skin

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like lesions. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting, mostly appearing on the distal extremities along with palmoplantar involvement. The disease affects the mucous membrane and orbits as well. The most common infectious cause is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Inflammation of the adipocytes underlying the skin is referred to as erythema nodosum, and it is not a feature of EM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with the vascular subtype (type IV) of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dysmorphic features, including thin nose and large eyes

      Explanation:

      Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is a group of genetic connective tissue disorders with over 13 clinical subtypes. Hyper-mobility is common to many of these subtypes. Vascular EDS is identified by thin, translucent skin prone to easy bleeding, as well as the risk of early arterial rupture, gastrointestinal perforation and uterine rupture. Those affected have dysmorphic features including a thin nose and lips, sunken cheeks and large eyes. The other features including| atrophic scars, a dominant family history, hyper extensible skin and kyphoscoliosis are not specific to vascular EDS and overlap in many of the subtypes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?

      Your Answer: Absent distal pulses

      Explanation:

      The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Angio-oedema

      Correct Answer: Steatorrhoea

      Explanation:

      CMPI ( cow’s milk protein intolerance) is an immunological reaction to one or more of the many proteins found in cow’s milk. It may be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated. The prominent signs and symptoms include sneezing, rhinorrhoea, coughing, wheezing, oral angioedema, oral itching, diarrhoea, vomiting, and bloody stools. Steatorrhea is not a recognized feature of CMPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic state. What is your immediate management of this case?

      Your Answer: Secure airway

      Explanation:

      ABC : Airway, breathing, circulation is the order of assessment in any patient that is unconscious and apnoeic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular rash. She had a previous history of flu-like illness and sore throat diagnosed as tonsillitis for which she was prescribed Amoxicillin. On examination, she has widespread cervical lymphadenopathy and petechiae on her palate. What is the most likely underlying pathogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein Barr Virus

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely underlying pathogen is the Epstein Barr virus (EBV).An Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infection most commonly results in upper respiratory tract symptoms with fever and sore throat. Lymphadenopathy is frequently palpable on examination. Splenomegaly may also occur, and for this reason, patients diagnosed with glandular fever should be advised to avoid contact sports for one month following diagnosis. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is also associated with EBV infection. The vast majority of patients with active EBV infection will develop a widespread rash if given amoxicillin, therefore, phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is recommended for the treatment of a suspected bacterial throat infection to prevent this complication occurring for individuals who have EBV infection.Other options:- Coronavirus: This is one of the causes of the common cold and is frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, the presenting features are more suggestive of an EBV infection.- Group A Streptococcus: Streptococci are classified into two main groups| alpha-haemolytic and beta-haemolytic. Group A Streptococcus belongs to the beta-haemolytic group. Group A streptococcal infection is a common cause of bacterial tonsillitis. It is possible that the child, in this case, had streptococcal tonsillitis and has had a drug reaction to the amoxicillin. However her age, flu-like symptoms and petechiae on her palate all point to an EBV infection and amoxicillin resulting in a rash.- Parainfluenza: Parainfluenza viruses are one of many causes of the common cold and can cause pharyngitis. They are the leading cause of viral croup.- Rhinovirus: Rhinoviruses are one of many causes of the common cold and are frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, are other factors suggesting EBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border| this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk| S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back. What diagnosis should he be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. The clinical signs of infection are fever and a maculopapular rash – this is a unique rash with both flat and raised lesions on the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat when ill

      Explanation:

      At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of eczema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eczema Severity Questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Eczema is an immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by intense pruritis and scaly rashes over the body. The impact of the disease can be measured by using certain scales, which include the Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire, infant’s Dermatitis Quality of Life Index, Patient-oriented Eczema Measure, and Children’s Dermatology Life Quality Index among many others. Eczema severity questionnaire is not a recognized scale to determine eczema impact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/2) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (0/1) 0%
Nutrition (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed