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  • Question 1 - A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a neck injury which displays the following signs:
      - ability to extend the wrist against gravity
      - paralysis of the hands, trunk, and legs
      - absent sensation in the fingers and medial upper arms
      - normal sensation over the thumbs
      - absent sensation in chest, abdomen, and legs

      What is the neurological level of the injury?

      Your Answer: C6

      Explanation:

      C1 – C4 INJURY
      Most severe of the spinal cord injury levels; paralysis in arms, hands, trunk and legs; patient may not be able to breathe on his or her own, cough, or control bowel or bladder movements; ability to speak is sometimes impaired or reduced

      C5 INJURY
      Person can raise his or her arms and bend elbows; likely to have some or total paralysis of wrists, hands, trunk and legs; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakened

      C6 INJURY
      Nerves affect wrist extension; paralysis in hands, trunk and legs, typically; should be able to bend wrists back; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakened

      C7 INJURY
      Nerves control elbow extension and some finger extension; most can straighten their arm and have normal movement of their shoulders

      C8 INJURY
      Nerves control some hand movement; should be able to grasp and release objects

      C5 – Elbow flexors (biceps, brachialis)
      C6 – Wrist extensors (extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis)
      C7 – Elbow extensors (triceps)
      C8 – Finger flexors (flexor digitorum profundus) to the middle finger

      C5 – Elbow flexed at 90 degrees, arm at the patient’s side and forearm supinated
      C6 – Wrist in full extension
      C7 – Shoulder is neutral rotation, adducted and in 90 degrees of flexion with elbow in 45 degrees of flexion
      C8 –Full flexed position of the distal phalanx with the proximal finger joints stabilized in a extended position

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      73362.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following describes the site of a Meckel's diverticulum: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes the site of a Meckel's diverticulum:

      Your Answer: Ileum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s lies on the antimesenteric surface of the middle-to-distal ileum, approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel, about 2 inches long, occurring in about 2% of the population, and may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic). The rich blood supply to the diverticulum is provided by the superior mesenteric artery.Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk) and distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery). The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      156
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements accurately describes the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements accurately describes the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It flexes the middle phalanges of the medial four fingers at the proximal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Flexor digitorum superficialis is the largest muscle of the anterior compartment of the forearm. It belongs to the superficial flexors of the forearm, together with pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris and palmaris longus. Some sources alternatively classify this muscle as an independent middle/intermediate layer of the anterior forearm, found between the superficial and deep groups.

      Flexor digitorum superficialis is innervated by muscular branches of the median nerve, derived from roots C8 and T1 that arises from the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus. The skin that overlies the muscle is supplied by roots C6-8 and T1.

      The primary arterial blood supply to the flexor digitorum superficialis is derived from the ulnar artery and its anterior recurrent branch. In addition to branches of the ulnar artery, the anterior and lateral surfaces of the muscle are supplied by branches of the radial artery; and its posterior surface also receives branches from the median artery.

      The main function of flexor digitorum superficialis is flexion of the digits 2-5 at the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. Unlike the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis has independent muscle slips for all four digits. This allows it to flex the digits individually at their proximal interphalangeal joints. In addition, flexor digitorum superficialis aids the aids flexion of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal ectopic pregnancies occur most commonly in which part of the uterine tube:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the ampulla (70% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The fracture of the medial epicondyle will cause damage to the ulnar nerve....

    Incorrect

    • The fracture of the medial epicondyle will cause damage to the ulnar nerve. Which of the following motions would be impaired by this type of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adduction of the thumb

      Explanation:

      Fracture of the medial epicondyle is most likely to result in damage to the ulnar nerve.

      The three hypothenar muscles, two medial lumbricals, seven interossei, the adductor pollicis, and the deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis are all innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve that innervates peroneus brevis.
      Peroneus brevis receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a reduced risk of toxicity in patients who are ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine.

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a weak opioid and can be used for the relief of mild to moderate pain where other painkillers such as paracetamol or ibuprofen have proved ineffective.Codeine is metabolised to morphine which is responsible for its therapeutic effects. Codeine 240 mg is approximately equivalent to 30 mg of morphine. The capacity to metabolise codeine can vary considerably between individuals; there is a marked increase in morphine toxicity in people who are ultra rapid metabolisers, and reduced therapeutic effect in poor codeine metabolisers. Codeine is contraindicated in patients of any age who are known to be ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolisers).Codeine is also contraindicated in children under 12, and in children of any age who undergo the removal of tonsils or adenoids for the treatment of obstructive sleep apnoea due to reports of morphine toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these is NOT a lithium side effect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of lithium Include

      Leucocytosis (most patients)
      Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)
      Dry mouth (20-50%)
      Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)
      Confusion (40%)
      Decreased memory (40%)
      Headache (40%)
      Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)
      Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)
      Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)
      Hyperreflexia (15%)
      Muscle twitch (15%)
      Vertigo (15%)
      Extrapyramidal symptoms, goitre (5%)
      Hypothyroidism (1-4%)
      Acne (1%)
      Hair thinning (1%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In which of the following cases is intravenous phenytoin contraindicated? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following cases is intravenous phenytoin contraindicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second degree heart block

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin Contraindications include:

      Hypersensitivity
      Sinus bradycardia
      Sinoatrial block
      Second and third degree A-V block
      Adams-Stokes syndrome
      Concurrent use with delavirdine
      History of prior acute hepatotoxicity attributable to phenytoin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in...

    Incorrect

    • What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion of the parietal optic radiation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the parietal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
      A lesion of the temporal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.

    In...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.

      In which of the following nerves is the gluteus maximus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteal muscles are a group of muscles that make up the buttock area. These muscles include: gluteus maximus, gluteus medius. and gluteus minimus.
      The gluteus maximus is the most superficial as well as largest of the three muscles and makes up most of the shape and form of the buttock and hip area. It is a thick, fleshy muscle with a quadrangular shape. It is a large muscle and plays a prominent role in the maintenance of keeping the upper body erect.
      The innervation of the gluteus maximus muscle is from the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone...

    Incorrect

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone pattern in leads V2, V3 and V4?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      Tombstoning ST elevation myocardial infarction can be described as a STEMI characterized by tombstoning ST-segment elevation. This myocardial infarction is associated with extensive myocardial damage, reduced left ventricle function, serious hospital complications and poor prognosis. Tombstoning ECG pattern is a notion beyond morphological difference and is associated with more serious clinical results.

      Studies have shown that tombstoning is more commonly found in anterior than non-anterior STEMI, thus, higher rates of left anterior descending artery disease are observed in patients with tombstoning pattern.

      The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:

      ECG Leads Location Vessel involved
      V1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)
      I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      V1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are taking care of a 55-year-old male patient who is a weightlifter....

    Incorrect

    • You are taking care of a 55-year-old male patient who is a weightlifter. He is suspected of having a direct inguinal hernia. Where would this hernia appear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial to the inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      A direct inguinal hernia is a form of groin hernia that occurs when abdominal viscera protrude through a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, notably through Hesselbach’s triangle, medial to the inferior epigastric veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the neck inferior to the cricoid cartilage.

      Explanation:

      A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the median cricothyroid ligament (the medial part of the cricothyroid membrane), between the cricoid cartilage below and the thyroid cartilage above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 77 year old lady presents to ED with her left leg shortened...

    Incorrect

    • A 77 year old lady presents to ED with her left leg shortened and externally rotated following slipping and falling on a wet bathroom floor. There is an intracapsular fracture of the neck of femur seen on imaging studies. She is at risk of avascular necrosis of the head of femur.

      This is caused by lack of blood supply from which of these arteries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The primary blood supply to the head of the femur is from branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery.

      The superior and inferior gluteal arteries supply the hip joint but not the head of femur.

      The lateral circumflex artery anastomoses with the medial femoral circumflex artery and assists in supplying the head of femur.

      The obturator artery is an important source of blood supply in children up to about 8 years. It gives rise to the artery of the head of femur which runs in the ligamentum teres and is insufficient to supply the head of femur in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A diagnosis of a brain tumour has been established.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia is not a disease; it is a clinical finding that points towards a lesion of the optic radiations coursing through the temporal lobe.
      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by damage to the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway: the inferior optic radiation (temporal Meyer loop), or the inferior part of the occipital visual cortex below the calcarine fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Injury to which nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the brachialis...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to which nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the brachialis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The brachialis muscle is a prime flexor of the forearm at the elbow joint. It is fusiform in shape and located in the anterior (flexor) compartment of the arm, deep to the biceps brachii. The brachialis is a broad muscle, with its broadest part located in the middle rather than at either of its extremities. It is sometimes divided into two parts, and may fuse with the fibres of the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, or pronator teres muscles. It also functions to form part of the floor of the cubital fossa.

      The brachialis is primarily supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6). In addition, a small lateral portion of the muscle is innervated by the radial nerve (C7).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is true regarding respiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding respiration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The diaphragm is responsible for abdominal breathing

      Explanation:

      The following are the mechanisms of breathing during inspiration and expiration, whether normal or forced.

      Normal inspiration is an active process, with the diaphragm as the main muscle. The diaphragm descends, ribs move upward and outward, and the lungs become wider and taller.

      In forced inspiration, which commonly occurs during exercise, the external intercostals and accessory muscles, such as the sternocleidomastoid, anterior serrati, scalenes, alae nasi, genioglossus and arytenoid are involved. The ribs move upward and outward, and the abdominal contents move downward.

      Normal expiration is a passive process, while in forced expiration, the internal intercostals and abdominal muscles, such as the rectus abdominis, internal and external obliques and transversus abdominis are involved. The ribs move downward and inward, and the abdominal contents move upward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In adults, the conus medullaris of the spinal cord lies at which of...

    Incorrect

    • In adults, the conus medullaris of the spinal cord lies at which of the following vertebral levels:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1/L2

      Explanation:

      At birth, the conus medullaris lies at L3. By the age of 21, it sits at L1/L2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year old man presented to the emergency room with complains of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old man presented to the emergency room with complains of chest pain and breathlessness. Upon history taking and examination, it was discovered that he had a right-sided spontaneous pneumothorax and had a failed attempt at pleural aspiration. The pneumothorax is still considerable in size, but he remains breathless. A Seldinger chest drain was inserted but it started to drain frank blood shortly after.

      Which of the following complications is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intercostal artery laceration

      Explanation:

      Injury to the intercostal artery (ICA) is an infrequent but potentially life-threatening complication of all pleural interventions.

      Traditional anatomy teaching describes the ICA as lying in the intercostal groove, protected by the flange of the rib. This is the rationale behind the recommendation to insert needles just above the superior border of the rib. Current recommendations for chest drain insertion suggest that drains should be inserted in the ‘safe triangle’ in order to avoid the heart and the mediastinum and be above the level of the diaphragm.

      The safe triangle is formed anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major, laterally by the lateral border of the latissimus dorsi, inferiorly by the line of the fifth intercostal space and superiorly by the base of the axilla. Imaging guidance also aids in the safety of the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a traffic accident. Upon examination, there is noted ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral motor loss, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. A spinal cord injury is given as a diagnosis.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of this manifestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown-Séquard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brown-Sequard Hemicord Syndrome consists of ipsilateral weakness (corticospinal tract) and loss of joint position and vibratory sense (posterior column), with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense (spinothalamic tract) one or two levels below the lesion. Segmental signs, such as radicular pain, muscle atrophy, or loss of a deep tendon reflex, are unilateral. Partial forms are more common than the fully developed syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion of the temporal lobe. What type of visual field defect would you most expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) carry visual information, via the upper and lower optic radiations, to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe:
      The upper optic radiation carries fibres from the superior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the inferior visual field quadrants) and travels through the parietal lobe to reach the visual cortex.
      The lower optic radiation carries fibres from the inferior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the superior visual field quadrants) and travels through the temporal lobe to reach the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep fibular nerve was previously referred to as the anterior tibial nerve.

      It starts at the common fibular nerve bifurcation, between the fibula and the proximal part of the fibularis longus. Damage to this nerve can cause foot drop or loss of dorsiflexion since this nerve controls the anterior leg muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a traffic accident. Upon examination, there was tenderness and erythema on the right acromioclavicular joint, with notable step deformity. On radiographic imaging, there is a superior elevation of the clavicle, a twice than normal coracoclavicular distance, and absence of fracture.

      Which of the following structure/s is/are likely to have ruptured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acromioclavicular ligament, coracoclavicular ligament and joint capsule

      Explanation:

      Acromioclavicular joint injuries account for more than forty percent of all shoulder injuries. Mild injuries are not associated with any significant morbidity, but severe injuries can lead to significant loss of strength and function of the shoulder. Acromioclavicular injuries may be associated with a fractured clavicle, impingement syndromes, and more rarely neurovascular insults.

      The AC joint is a diarthrodial joint defined by the lateral process of the clavicle articulating with the acromion process as it projects anteriorly off the scapula. The joint is primarily stabilized by the acromioclavicular ligament, which is composed of an anterior, posterior, inferior, and superior component. Of note, the superior portion of the AC ligament is the most important component for the stability of the AC joint. Supporting structures include two coracoclavicular ligaments (trapezoid and conoid ligaments), which provide vertical stability, as well as the coracoacromial ligament.

      Patients with an AC joint injury typically present with anterosuperior shoulder pain and will describe a mechanism of injury of blunt trauma to the abducted shoulder or landing on an outstretched arm, suggestive of this type of injury. They may describe pain radiating to the neck or shoulder, which is often worse with movement or when they try to sleep on the affected shoulder. On examination, the clinician may observe swelling, bruising, or a deformity of the AC joint, depending on the degree of injury. The patient will be tender at that location. They may have a restriction in the active and passive range of motion secondary to pain. Piano key sign may be seen, with an elevation of the clavicle that rebounds after inferior compression.

      Standard X-rays are adequate to make a diagnosis of acromioclavicular joint injury and should be used to evaluate for other causes of traumatic shoulder pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely the cause of oedema...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely the cause of oedema and erythema of the arm in a patient who underwent modified radical mastectomy and radiotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Arm oedema is one of the sequelae after breast cancer surgery and radiation therapy. Arm oedema in the breast cancer patient is caused by interruption of the axillary lymphatic system by surgery or radiation therapy, which results in the accumulation of fluid in subcutaneous tissue in the arm, with decreased distensibility of tissue around the joints and increased weight of the extremity. Chronic inflammatory changes result in both subcutaneous and lymph vessel fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is most likely to cause a homonymous hemianopia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause a homonymous hemianopia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery stroke

      Explanation:

      A posterior cerebral stroke will most likely result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 4-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after a sudden onset of coughing and wheezing. Further investigation reveals that he was drawing quietly in his room, when suddenly, he became anxious and started coughing. The parents also noted that the eraser on top of the pencil was missing.

      A plain radiographic chest imaging is conducted, and confirmed foreign body aspiration.

      Which of the following areas in the tracheobronchial tree is the most probable location of the aspirated eraser?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      In foreign body aspiration, the foreign body is more likely to enter the right main bronchus because it is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left main bronchus. In a patient who is standing or sitting, the foreign body tends to become lodged in the posterobasal segment of the inferior lobe of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 44 year old woman is brought to ED having fallen down the...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old woman is brought to ED having fallen down the stairs and injured her right arm. On examination she is unable to abduct her arm normally, and has weakness of lateral rotation. She has sensory loss over the lateral aspect of her upper arm. Which of the following injuries is most likely to produce this pattern of injury:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical neck of humerus fracture

      Explanation:

      Damage to the axillary nerve will result in loss of abduction past about 15 degrees and weakness of lateral rotation due to paralysis of the deltoid and teres minor and loss of sensation over the regimental badge area on the upper lateral arm. The axillary nerve is most likely injured in fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus due to its course where it winds around this region together with the posterior humeral circumflex vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to the regional lymph nodes.

      The lymph from the testes will drain to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Testes are retroperitoneal organs and its lymphatic drainage is to the lumbar and para-aortic nodes along the lumbar vertebrae.

      The scrotum is the one which drains into the nearby superficial inguinal nodes.

      The glans penis and clitoris drains into the deep inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
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