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  • Question 1 - For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?

      Your Answer: Syphillis

      Correct Answer: EBV

      Explanation:

      Blood for transfusion is routinely screened for hepatitis B and C, HIV, CMV and syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      111.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are...

    Correct

    • A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are swollen. What class of drugs does spironolactone belong to?

      Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretics

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a renal competitive aldosterone antagonist in a class of drugs called ‘potassium-sparing diuretics’, that is primarily used to treat fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver scarring, or kidney disease. It is also used in the treatment of high blood pressure, low blood potassium, early-onset puberty, and acne and excessive hair growth in women. Spironolactone inhibits the effect of aldosterone by competing for intracellular aldosterone receptors in the distal tubule cells. This increases the secretion of water and sodium, while decreasing the excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      68
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding innervation to the peroneus brevis muscle: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding innervation to the peroneus brevis muscle:

      Your Answer: Could be damaged by a fracture of the tibia

      Correct Answer: Could be damaged by a fracture of the neck of the fibula

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superficial peroneal nerve which is one of the two terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. The common peroneal nerve winds around the neck of the fibula and can be injured in cases of fractured neck of fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      147.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year old gentleman underwent a computed tomographic scan for the abdomen to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman underwent a computed tomographic scan for the abdomen to rule out blunt abdominal trauma, after a vehicular accident. The scan revealed no abnormal finding except for a 1 cm-sized cortical mass in the left adrenal gland. The doctor-on-call decided to not intervene for this mass because it was likely to be a:

      Your Answer: Haematoma

      Correct Answer: Non-functioning adrenal adenoma

      Explanation:

      Adrenal adenomas are common, benign lesions which are asymptomatic and seen in 10% of population. Usually detected incidentally on Computed tomography (‘incidentaloma’), only around 1 in 10,000 are malignant (adenocarcinoma). Adrenal adenomas rarely need to be investigated, especially if they are homogenous and less than 3 cm in diameter. Follow-up imaging can be done after an interval of 3-6 months to assess any change in size. Some adenomas can secrete cortisol (leading to Cushing syndrome), or aldosterone (leads to Conn syndrome) or androgens (leading to hyperandrogenism).

      Haematomas and simple cysts are not usually seen in adrenal gland. Infection due to Histoplasma capsulatum is usually bilateral and leads to multiple granulomas. Adrenal metastasis will usually demonstrate a lung primary and the adrenal lesions will be often multiple and larger than 1 cm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      141.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer: Pulsus alternans

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      246.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following structures was likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Hemianopia or hemianopsia, is the loss of vision of half of the eye or loss of half the visual field. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision or blindness on half of the same side of both eyes (visual field) – either both lefts of the eyes or both rights of the eyes. This condition is mainly caused by cerebrovascular accidents like a stroke that affects the optic radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year old, obese gentleman with a compression fracture of T11 vertebra was...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old, obese gentleman with a compression fracture of T11 vertebra was admitted in the hospital. Examination revealed a raised blood pressure 165/112 mmHg and blood glucose 8.5 mmol/l. His abdomen had the presence of purplish striae. What condition is he likely to be suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal cortical carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Adrenocortical carcinomas are rare tumours with reported incidence being only two in a million. However, they have a poor prognosis. These are large tumours and range from 4-10 cm in diameter. They arise from the adrenal cortex and 10% cases are bilateral. 50-80% are known to be functional, leading to Cushing syndrome. Even though the tumour affects both sexes equally, functional tumours are slightly commoner in women and non-functional tumours are commoner in men. As compared to women, men also develop this tumour at an older age and seem to have a poorer prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. A full blood count revealed: haematocrit = 30%, erythrocytes = 4 × 106/μ, haemoglobin level = 8 g/dl. To determine the likely cause of his anaemia, red blood cell indices were calculated. Which RBC indices are correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MCHC = haemoglobin concentration/haematocrit

      Explanation:

      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is calculated simply by dividing the haemoglobin concentration (8 g/dl) by the haematocrit (0.3). The normal range is 31–36 g/dl. This patient has a hypochromic anaemia (MCHC = 8/0.3 = 26.7 g/dl). Dividing the haemoglobin concentration × 10 by erythrocyte number yields mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Normal range is 25.4–34.6 pg/cell and this patient has a significantly reduced cellular haemoglobin content (MCH = 8 × 10/4 = 20 pg/cell). Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is calculated by dividing haematocrit × 1000 by erythrocyte number (4 × 106/μl). Normal range is 80–100 fl and this patient has a microcytic anaemia (MCV = 0.3 × 1000/4 = 75 fl). Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia is characteristic for iron-deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Incorrect

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Hepatomegaly with greatly increased serum alpha-fetoprotein is seen in which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Hepatomegaly with greatly increased serum alpha-fetoprotein is seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma or hepatoma affects people with pre-existing cirrhosis and is more common in areas with higher prevalence of hepatitis B and C. Diagnosis include raise alpha-fetoprotein levels, imaging and liver biopsy if needed. Patients at high-risk for developing this disease can undergo screening by periodic AFP measurement and abdominal ultrasonography. The malignancy carries poor prognosis (see also Answer to 10.4).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior column-medial lemniscus system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fine touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior column–medial lemniscus (PCML) pathway is a sensory pathway that transmits fine touch and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. As the posterior columns are also known as dorsal columns, the pathway is also called the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system or DCML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells...

    Incorrect

    • The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells was blocked by a drug. Which of the following transmembrane proteins were blocked by this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: K+ channels

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential is due to selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions. The Na/K pump is responsible for the generation of a gradient across the membrane and it is due to the inherent ability of the K channels to allow diffusion back into the nerve at rest which charges the cells. In reality, the resting membrane potential is more positive because of small contributions by Na+ channels, Cl− channels and non-selective cation channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is A- blood group. Her first child was Rh+ and the father is also Rh+. The second child is at a risk of developing which condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic disease of the new-born

      Explanation:

      This infant is at risk for haemolytic disease of the new born also known as erythroblastosis fetalis. In the pregnancy, Rh-positive RBC’s cross the placenta and enter the mothers blood system. She then becomes sensitised and forms IgG antibodies/anti-Rh antibodies against them. The second child is at a greater risk for this disease than the first child with Rh-positive blood group as during the second pregnancy, a more powerful response is produced. IgG has the ability to cross the placenta and bind to the fetal RBCs (type II hypersensitivity reaction) which are phagocytosed by the macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Passing through the lesser sciatic foramen are the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Passing through the lesser sciatic foramen are the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      Structures that pass through the lesser sciatic foramen include:

      – the pudendal nerve

      – the nerve to obturator internus

      – internal pudendal artery

      – the tendon of obturator internus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the adductors of the digits take at least part of their attachments from metacarpal bones

      Explanation:

      Lying on the palmer surfaces of the metacarpal bones are four palmar interossei which are smaller than the dorsal interossei. Arising from the entire length of the metacarpal bone of one finger, is a palmar interosseous, which is inserted into the side of the base of the first phalanx and the aponeurotic expansion of the extensor digitorum communis tendon to the same finger. All the interossei are innervated by the eighth cervical nerve, through the deep palmar branch of the ulnar nerve. The palmar interossei adducts the fingers to an imaginary line drawn longitudinally through the centre of the middle finger.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the right breast with enlarged axillary nodes on the same side. She underwent mastectomy and axillary node clearance. These were sent for histopathological examination. They showed no signs of metastasis. What could be cause of this enlargement in the lymph nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinus histiocytosis

      Explanation:

      Sinus histiocytosis also referred to as reticular hyperplasia, refers to the enlargement, distention and prominence of the sinusoids of the lymph nodes. This is a non-specific form of hyperplasia characteristically seen in lymph nodes that drain tumours. The endothelial lining of the lymph node becomes markedly hypertrophied, along with an increase in the number of macrophages which results in the distortion, distention and enlargement of the sinus. In this scenario there is no evidence that an infection or another malignancy could account for the enlargement. Paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia is caused by an immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Female Health
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with...

    Incorrect

    • A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with karyorrhexis and fragmentation. The overall integrity of the tissue structure is preserved. This is typical of which of the following pathologies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Viral infections will cause necrosis of the hepatocytes with characteristic changes of karyorrhexis and cell fragmentation.

      Brown atrophy of the heart is due to accumulation of lipofuscin in the myocardium.

      Tissue destruction associated with transplant rejection leads to widespread loss of structural integrity.

      Single cell necrosis is not characteristically seen in chronic alcoholic liver.

      Barbiturate overdose will result in hypertrophy of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

      Carcinoma insitu will cause dysplastic cells without the overall structural integrity being disrupted.

      Atrophy is due to apoptosis with ordered cellular fragmentation and phagocytosis and will not induce an inflammatory process unlike necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant...

    Incorrect

    • In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant neoplasm on biopsy. What microscopic findings are suggestive of malignancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Invasion

      Explanation:

      Invasion is suggestive of malignancy and an even better option would have been metastasis. Pleomorphism is found in both benign and malignant neoplasms along with atypia and anaplasia. A height nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is suggestive of malignancy but not the best indicator. Malignant tumours are aggressive and growth rapidly. Necrosis can be seen in benign tumours if they deplete their blood supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right chest, which can be easily aspirated if the needle is inserted through the body wall just above the 9th rib in the midaxillary line. Where is this fluid located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7

      Explanation:

      A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed