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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Amphotericin

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate...

    Incorrect

    • After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate post-operative period?

      Your Answer: Antithyroglobulin antibody

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Total thyroidectomy might sometimes result in inadvertent excision or damage of parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Monitoring serum calcium levels in the post-operative period to detect hypocalcaemia is essential to diagnose and prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what...

    Correct

    • When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what is its stage?

      Your Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The TNM staging used for penile cancer is as follows:

      TX: primary tumour cannot be assessed

      T0: primary tumour is not evident

      Tis: carcinoma in situ is present

      Ta: non-invasive verrucous carcinoma is present

      T1: tumour is invading subepithelial connective tissue

      T2: tumour is invading the corpora spongiosum or cavernosum

      T3: tumour invading the urethra or prostate

      T4: tumour invading other adjacent structures.

      In this case, the patient has a T1 tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Blood investigations of a patient with vitamin K deficiency revealed a prolonged prothrombin...

    Correct

    • Blood investigations of a patient with vitamin K deficiency revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. This coagulation abnormality is most probably due to:

      Your Answer: Factor VII deficiency

      Explanation:

      Factor VII deficiency is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or reduced activity of clotting factor VII. It may be inherited or acquired at some point during life. Inherited factor VII deficiency is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations of the F7 gene. Factor VII is vitamin K-dependent, as are Factors II, IX and X and therefore lack of this vitamin can cause the development of acquired factor VII deficiency. Other causes of acquired deficiency of this factor include liver disease, sepsis and warfarin therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over a period of 24 hours were:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 1.0 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.01 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 260 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 7 mmol/l

      What is the glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer: 200 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. GFR is equal to the inulin clearance because inulin is freely filtered into Bowman’s capsule but is not reabsorbed or secreted. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U Ă— V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. Thus, glomerular filtration rate = (1.0 Ă— 2. 0)/0.01 = 200 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      116.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Coagulation in the body (in vivo) is a process in which several proteins...

    Correct

    • Coagulation in the body (in vivo) is a process in which several proteins known as coagulation factors are activated in a cascade effect to stop bleeding. Which of the following initiates this cascade effect?

      Your Answer: Tissue factor

      Explanation:

      Tissue factor (TF), also known as ‘factor III’ or ‘thromboplastin’, is an anti-coagulation protein that initiates the extrinsic coagulation. TF acts as a transmembrane receptor for Factor VII/VIIa . It is expressed by endothelial cells but also certain tissues, such as the heart and brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected...

    Correct

    • A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected lump in her right breast. On examination, the lump is found to be 1cm, rubbery, mobile with no palpable axillary nodes. Mammography reveals no microcalcifications and the opposite breast appears normal. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      A benign breast tumour, fibroadenoma is common below the age of 30 years and occurs due to oestrogenic excess. It is characterised by proliferation of both glandular and stromal elements. Fibroadenomas are usually solitary and are mobile, not fixed to surrounding structures. The tumour is elastic, nodular and encapsulated with a grey-white cut surface. The two main histological types include intracanalicular and pericanalicular types, with both types often present in the same tumour. In the intracanalicular type, the stromal proliferation component predominates causing compression of ducts making them appear slit-like. In pericanalicular type, the fibrous stroma dominates around the ductal spaces so that they remain oval on cross section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ependymoma

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells?

      Your Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular cells synthesise, store and secrete the enzyme renin in the kidney. They are specialised smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood to the glomerulus and thus play a critical role in the renin– angiotensin system and so in renal autoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      2151.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Intravenous diazepam was administered to a man who was brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • Intravenous diazepam was administered to a man who was brought to the emergency department with status epilepticus. He was administered 15 l/min oxygen via a reservoir bag mask. Blood investigations showed sodium = 140 mmol/l, potassium = 4 mmol/l and chloride = 98 mmol/l. His arterial blood gas analysis revealed pH 7.08, p(CO2)= 61.5 mmHg, p(O2) = 111 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 17 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and low standard bicarbonate indicates mixed acidosis. Lower p(O2) is due to breathing of 70% oxygen. The prolonged seizures lead to lactic acidosis and the intravenous diazepam is responsible for the respiratory acidosis. Treatment includes airway manoeuvres and oxygen, assisted ventilation if needed, and treatment with fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Fluids & Electrolytes (1/2) 50%
Pathology (4/6) 67%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
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