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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for evening meal
Correct Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal
Explanation:The management of cystic fibrosis requires a multidisciplinary approach, starting with a planned diet.The critical points of this management approach are:Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage – the parents are usually taught to do this.Deep breathing exercises,High calorie, high fat intake with vitamin supplementation.Pancreatic enzyme supplements with meals.Heart-lung transplantation would be the definitive treatment.Note: Previously, a high-calorie, low-fat diet was recommended to reduce steatorrhea. However, it is no longer the desired approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally noticed protein in the urine on two occasions when the child came to see him after school. The boy is otherwise healthy and has no signs of oedema or recent infection. The urine dipstick you obtain is negative for protein when you review him in the early morning hours. What is the most likely cause of proteinuria in this child?
Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome
Correct Answer: Orthostatic proteinuria
Explanation:Based on the clinical presentation, the child probably has orthostatic proteinuria.Orthostatic proteinuria occurs when the kidneys can conserve urine when the patient is recumbent, such as sleeping at night, but leak protein with standing or in exercise. This results in early morning urine being negative for protein but late in the day urine being positive. It is mostly seen in tall thin adolescents and is benign. Other options:- Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary condition associated with haematuria and deafness. – Urinary tract infections can cause proteinuria, but leucocyte esterase and nitrites would also be expected in a child of this age. – Nephritic syndrome can be associated with proteinuria, but haematuria would also be present. – In nephrotic syndrome, proteinuria would be present on all occasions and associated with oedema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 3
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with Crohn's disease?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Correct Answer: Xanthomas
Explanation:CUTANEOUS DISORDERS OR DERMATOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH IBD- Psoriasis- Secondary amyloidosis- Vitiligo- Acquired epidermolysis bullosaIn some cases, non-granulomatous skin disorders occur as a reaction to the intestinal disease. These include:- Pyoderma gangrenosum- Neutrophilic dermatosis / Sweet syndrome, typically with pustules- Pyodermatitis-pyostomatitis vegetans, a purulent erosive dermatosis characterised by snail-track ulcers- Erythema multiforme- Erythema nodosum- Acneiform eruptions including nodulocystic acne, hidradenitis suppurativa and folliculitis- Palisaded neutrophilic and granulomatous dermatitis- Necrotizing and granulomatous small vessel vasculitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal| however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?
Your Answer: Capillary blood gases
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?
Your Answer: Administer buccal midazolam now
Correct Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A young boy presents with signs of kidney disease. He has a long-standing history of proteinuria and hypocomplementemia which were not responsive to steroid treatment. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetes
Correct Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis primarily affects children and young adults, with patients presenting with nephrotic or nephritic syndrome or with asymptomatic renal disease. There are 3 types defined by pathologic features. All three types are associated with hypocomplementemia, but they manifest somewhat different mechanisms of complement activation. This type of glomerulonephritis often progresses slowly to end-stage renal disease, and it tends to recur after renal transplantation, especially type II.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?
Your Answer: The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex is present
Correct Answer: The Moro reflex is absent
Explanation:Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 10
Correct
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A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Myxoedema
Explanation:Hyposplenism usually occurs after the surgical removal of the spleen or in pathological processes where the splenic tissue is replaced with abnormal tissue. It is often associated with diseases such as sickle cell disease, Coeliac disease, SLE and Dermatitis Herpetiformis. Myxoedema however bears no known association with hyposplenism. Patients with hyposplenism are at risk of fulminant bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her face. The acne is exacerbated during her menstrual period. The most appropriate treatment option would be?
Your Answer: Dianette
Correct Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for the treatment of mild to moderate acne vulgaris. It is actually a peeling agent and it clears the pores and reduces the bacterial cell count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism?
Your Answer: Delayed puberty
Explanation:Hirsutism is the growth of excess hair in androgen dependent areas or in a male pattern. The phenomenon is found in conditions where there is abnormal androgen action. This can occur in adrenal lesions including congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome, or a failure to produce adequate female hormones such as PCOS and premature menopause. Similarly, drugs such as anabolic steroids, danazol and minoxidil can also cause hirsutism. Delayed puberty is unlikely to cause hirsutism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor, wheeze, and lip swelling following the ingestion of a cashew nut at a birthday party.Which of the following can be considered an acceptable treatment option for this child?
Your Answer: Nebulised adrenaline 5 ml 1:10,000
Correct Answer: Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000
Explanation:The patient is suffering from an anaphylactic reaction to the cashew nut he consumed.Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress.The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- Resuscitation – ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline is given at ten microgram/kg or Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000- IV Hydrocortisone is given at 4mg/kg- pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
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A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea for the past 9 months. She goes to college and is performs well academically. Physical examination shows an underweight girl (weight 38 kg), height 1.78 m (5 ft 10 inches). Excessive small hair can be seen growing on the body. Labs are significant for an elevated cortisol level, normal T4 level, and anaemia associated with reduced WBCs and platelets. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder defined by restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight. Patients will have an intense fear of gaining weight and distorted body image with the inability to recognize the seriousness of their significantly low body weight. Athletes in sports such as ballet, long-distance running, and martial arts are pressured to maintain lean body weights to outperform the competition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A father brought his 6-year-old son with cystic fibrosis to the ER department due to massive hematemesis. He is hypotensive and has a tachycardia. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aorto-intestinal fistula
Correct Answer: Bleeding oesophageal varices
Explanation:Bleeding oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension can cause a massive gastrointestinal haemorrhage resulting in shock. Perforated ulcer is less likely in this age group. Mallory Weiss tear would not likely result in a massive haemorrhage. Aorto-intestinal fistula is more common in older patients with abdominal aneurysms. Boerhaave’s syndrome is a result of a ruptured oesophagus following excessive vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?
Your Answer: Peritracheal fascia
Correct Answer: Cupola
Explanation:Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer: Medial surface of the frontal lobe
Correct Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.Note:The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:1. Anterior communicating artery2. Anterior cerebral artery3. Internal carotid artery4. Posterior communicating artery5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5 month old baby presents with bilious vomiting. Doctors notice a palpable mass and drawing up of legs. They treat the baby with an air reduction enema, suspecting intussusception. However, the procedure is interrupted as the baby develops abdominal distention and starts to drop their saturations. What would be the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Stop the procedure, the air has reduced the colon and is refluxing into normal small bowel. Removal of rectal catheter allows decompression.
Correct Answer: Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum
Explanation:Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum is necessary to avoid tension pneumoperitoneum. Air reduction enema is the main stay of treatment for intussusception and is successful in around 90% of cases. A serious potential risk of this procedure is perforation of the colon and a pneumoperitoneum, leading to rapid distension of the abdomen and splinting of the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl about her language development.Which feature would NOT be associated with language delay in an 18-month-old child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of imitative gesture
Explanation:18-month-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalLikes to hand things to others as play May have temper tantrums May be afraid of strangers Shows affection to familiar people Plays simple pretend, such as feeding a doll May cling to caregivers in new situations Points to show others something interesting Explores alone but with parent close by Language/CommunicationSays several single words Says and shakes head “no” Points to show someone what he wants Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Knows what ordinary things are for| for example, telephone, brush, spoon Points to get the attention of others Shows interest in a doll or stuffed animal by pretending to feed Points to one body part Scribbles on his own Can follow 1-step verbal commands without any gestures| for example, sits when you say “sit down” Movement/Physical DevelopmentWalks alone May walk up steps and run Pulls toys while walking Can help undress herself Drinks from a cup Eats with a spoon
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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