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  • Question 1 - Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates? ...

    Correct

    • Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates?

      Your Answer: The odds ratio is synonymous with the risk ratio

      Explanation:

      The relative risk (also known as risk ratio [RR]) is the ratio of risk of an event in one group (e.g., exposed group) versus the risk of the event in the other group (e.g., nonexposed group).

      The odds ratio (OR) is the ratio of odds of an event in one group versus the odds of the event in the other group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      106.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented with bowel perforation. During the surgery, the marginal artery of Drummond is encountered and preserved.
      Which of the following two arteries fuse to form the marginal artery of Drummond?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery and sigmoid arteries

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The arteries of the midgut (superior mesenteric artery) and hindgut (inferior mesenteric artery) give off terminal branches that form an anastomotic vessel called the marginal artery of Drummond. It runs in the inner margins of the colon and gives off short terminal branches to the bowel wall.

      The marginal artery is formed by the main branches and arcades arising from the ileocolic, right colic, middle colic, and left colic arteries. It is most apparent in the ascending, transverse, and descending colons and poorly developed in the sigmoid colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main...

    Correct

    • Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?

      Your Answer: Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent...

    Correct

    • A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).

      Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?

      Your Answer: Neonate

      Explanation:

      The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
      3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosis

      Young children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.

      At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.

      When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.

      Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      92.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?

      Your Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level

      Explanation:

      The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
      (10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
      This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.

      Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.

      Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.

      Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
      A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.

      So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.

      A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      181.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?...

    Correct

    • What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?

      Your Answer: External elastic lamina

      Explanation:

      Blood vessels (except capillaries and venules) have three distinctive layers (innermost to outermost):
      1. Tunica intima
      2. Tunica media
      3. Tunica adventitia

      The tunica media contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima layer by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - At 37 weeks' gestation, a 29-year-old parturient is admitted to the labour ward....

    Correct

    • At 37 weeks' gestation, a 29-year-old parturient is admitted to the labour ward. Her antenatal period was asymptomatic for her.

      The haematological values listed below are available:

      Hb concentration of 100 g/L (115-165)
      200x109/L platelets (150-400)
      MCV 81 fL (80-96)

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for the problem?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      This patient’s limited haematological profile includes mild normocytic anaemia and a normal platelet count.

      Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anaemia during pregnancy. It affects 75 to 95 percent of patients. A haemoglobin level of less than 110 g/L in the first trimester and less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters is considered anaemia. There will usually be a low mean cell volume (MCV), mean cell haemoglobin (MCH), and mean cell haemoglobin concentration in addition to a low haemoglobin (MCHC). The MCV may be normal in mild cases of iron deficiency or coexisting vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.

      To determine whether you have an iron deficiency, you’ll need to take more tests. Low serum ferritin (15 g/L) and less reliable indices like serum iron and total iron binding capacity are among them.

      A number of factors contribute to iron deficiency in pregnancy, including:

      Insufficient dietary iron to meet the mother’s and foetus’ nutritional needs
      Multiple pregnancies
      Blood loss, as well as
      Absorption of iron from the gut is reduced.

      The volume of plasma increases by about 50% during pregnancy, but the mass of red blood cells (RBCs) increases by only 30%. Dilutional anaemia is the result of this situation. From the first trimester to delivery, the RBC mass increases linearly, while the plasma volume plateaus, stabilises, or falls slightly near term. As a result, between 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy, haemoglobin concentrations are at their lowest. The effects of haemodilution will be negated in this patient because she is 37 weeks pregnant.

      Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency are less common causes of anaemia in pregnancy. The diagnosis could be ruled out if the MVC is normal.

      During pregnancy, the platelet count drops, especially in the third trimester. Gestational thrombocytopenia is the medical term for this condition. It’s due to a combination of factors, including haemodilution and increased platelet activation and clearance. Pre-eclampsia and HELLP syndrome are common causes of thrombocytopenia. Pre-eclampsia isn’t the only cause of anaemia during pregnancy.

      A typical blood picture of a haemoglobinopathy like sickle cell disease shows quantitative and qualitative defects, with the former leading to a severe anaemia exacerbated by haemodilution and other factors that contribute to iron deficiency. Microcytic cells are the most common type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the subclavian artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the subclavian artery?

      Your Answer: Internal thoracic artery

      Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The left subclavian artery originates from the aortic arch, while the right subclavian artery originates from the brachiocephalic artery.

      The subclavian artery gives off branches on both sides of the body:
      1. Vertebral artery
      2. Internal thoracic artery
      3. Thyrocervical trunk
      4. Costocervical trunk
      5. Dorsal scapular artery

      The superior thyroid artery is the first branch of the external carotid artery. The other branches of the external carotid artery are:
      1. Superior thyroid artery
      2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      3. Lingual artery
      4. Facial artery
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?

      Your Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae

      Explanation:

      Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.

      Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.

      Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)

      Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.

      Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on...

    Correct

    • Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?

      Your Answer: Protein binding

      Explanation:

      When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to ?1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.

      The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.

      Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      81.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Statistical Methods (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Physiology (4/4) 100%
Pathophysiology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed