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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of aortic regurgitation?
Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Aortic insufficiency, is often due to the aortic root dilation, which is idiopathic in over 80% of cases, but otherwise may result from aging, syphilitic aortitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, aortic dissection, Bechet’s disease, reactive arthritis and systemic hypertension. Additionally, aortic insufficiency has been linked to the use of some medications and other potential causes that affect the valve directly including Marfan’s syndrome, Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, ankylosing spondylitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus. In acute cases of aortic insufficiency, the main causes are infective endocarditis, aortic dissection or trauma. Dilated cardiomyopathy is associated with the development of mitral regurgitation, not aortic regurgitation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Calcium needed for cardiac muscle contraction is made available during which phase of the action potential?
Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:It is made available during the plateau phase of the action potential i.e. phase 2. During the plateau phase of the action potential, Calcium from the extracellular fluid enters through the L type of calcium channels. This entry triggers the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum via the ryanodine receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy
Explanation:Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 86 year old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her advanced Alzheimer's dementia. Upon clinical examination, her respiratory rate is found to be 35, and thus a bronchoscopy is recommended. According to which of the following would you obtain consent for this patient?
Your Answer: Psychogeriatric opinion is needed before consent can be obtained
Correct Answer: The procedure does not require a written consent
Explanation:This is an emergency case regarding a patient with impaired cognitive functioning. This is why the procedure does not require a written consent. In any other case where the patient has a normal mental capacity, the consent would be obtained as an informed written consent. In this case however, the suggested procedure is almost a matter of life and death, the doctor being required to act on behalf of the patient to her optimal advantage. Under English law no other person can consent to treatment on behalf of an adult, though it is desirable that next of kin are consulted before treating an adult without consent. Recent legislation gives legal authority to people appointed by the patient, or by the state, or a relative or carer, to consent (or refuse) on behalf of the patient. A mini-mental score may not adequately identify those unable to give consent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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The free radical most abundantly formed by the immune system is:
Your Answer: Hydroxyl radical
Explanation:Neutrophil and macrophage phagocytosis stimulates various cellular processes including the respiratory burst whereby increased cellular oxygen uptake results in the production of the potent oxidant bactericidal agents, hypochlorous acid and hydroxyl radical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the cytosol to the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Your Answer: Calmodulin
Correct Answer: Phospholamban
Explanation:Phosphorylation of phospholamban increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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Inhibition of cell division at the end of G1 occurs through:
Your Answer: Unphosphorolated retinoblastoma protein (uRb)
Explanation:A cell’s decision to enter, or re-enter, the cell cycle is made before S-phase in G1 at what is known as the restriction point, and is determined by the combination of promotional and inhibitory extracellular signals that are received and processed. Ultimately unphosphorylated Rb acts as an inhibitor of G1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?
Your Answer: Retinoblastoma
Explanation:Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?
Your Answer: Increases urine alkalinity
Explanation:The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.Features of toxicityCoarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)HyperreflexiaAcute confusionSeizureComaManagementMild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal salineHaemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicitySodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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What causes increased insulin sensitivity?
Your Answer: Exercise
Explanation:Physical activity, through its effect on insulin sensitivity, is one of the main modifiable risk factors for type 2 diabetes. It is estimated that by each weekly 500 kcal increment in exercise related energy consumption, the lifetime risk of suffering from type 2 diabetes is reduced by 9%. Up to two hours after exercise, glucose uptake is elevated due to insulin independent mechanisms; however, insulin sensitivity remains increased for at least 16 hours after exercising.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?
Your Answer: Reduced levels of prostaglandins
Explanation:Ductus arteriosus is kept open by the prostaglandin E2 which is a vasodilator. At birth the high levels of cyclooxygenase blocks the production of prostaglandins which results in the closure of the ductus arteriosus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the atrial pressure changes represents the a-wave of the JVP
Your Answer: Atrial systole
Explanation:The a-wave created on the venous pulse curve occurs as a result of atrial systole. Due to the pressure build-up in the atria, it causes a back pressure in the vena cava. This pressure is exerted on the valve and this back pressure is what causes a slight increase in the venous pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Nucleic acids are split into nucleotides in the:
Your Answer: Stomach
Correct Answer: Intestine
Explanation:The pancreas is the major source for all the digestive enzymes including nucleases which split nucleic acids into nucleotides primarily in the small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.
Your Answer: Linear regression
Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test
Explanation:The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is
Your Answer: IgM
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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Concerning the functional unit of the liver, which segment is most susceptible to hypoxic damage?
Your Answer: Zone 3
Explanation:From a metabolic perspective, the functional unit is the hepatic acinus (terminal acinus), each of which is centred on the line connecting two portal triads and extends outwards to the two adjacent central veins. The periportal zone I is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood, making it least sensitive to ischemic injury while making it very susceptible to viral hepatitis. Conversely, the centrilobular zone III has the poorest oxygenation, and will be most affected during a time of ischemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction and stroke?
Your Answer: It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor
Explanation:tPA is a serine protease involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It functions by converting plasminogen, an inactive precursor, into plasmin, an active enzyme. Plasmin then degrades fibrin, the main protein component of blood clots, leading to clot dissolution. This mechanism is particularly valuable in the treatment of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and ischemic stroke, where timely dissolution of the clot can restore blood flow to affected tissues and reduce damage.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
- It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Stroke volume in a average sized man lying in supine position is about?
Your Answer: 100ml
Correct Answer: 70 ml
Explanation:The stroke volume of an average sized man who is lying is the supine position is about 70 ml.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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The cavernous sinus is?
Your Answer: Lateral to the body of the sphenoid
Explanation:It is a venous sinus which creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment bordered by the temporal bone and the sphenoid bone. There are 2 on either side. It is about 1cm wide and extends from the posterior aspect of the orbit to the petrous part of the temporal bone. They sit on either side or lateral to the sphenoid bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which statement about antithrombin III is true?
Your Answer: It inactivates factors V and VIII
Correct Answer: It inhibits particularly factor II and X
Explanation:Antithrombin inactivates its physiological target enzymes, Thrombin (Factor II), Factor Xa and Factor IXa. ATIII binds to thrombin and then forms the thrombin-anti thrombin complex or TAT complex. This is a major natural pathway of anticoagulation. This binding of thrombin to AT is greatly enhanced in the presence of heparin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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Which one of the following features is least associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?
Your Answer: Sensory loss
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism are those of hypercalcemia. They are classically summarized by stones, bones, abdominal groans, thrones and psychiatric overtones.
Stones refers to kidney stones, nephrocalcinosis, and diabetes insipidus (polyuria and polydipsia). These can ultimately lead to renal failure.
Bones refers to bone-related complications: osteitis fibrosa cystica, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and arthritis.
Abdominal groans refers to gastrointestinal symptoms of constipation, indigestion, nausea and vomiting. Hypercalcemia can lead to peptic ulcers and acute pancreatitis.
Thrones refers to polyuria and constipation
Psychiatric overtones refers to effects on the central nervous system. Symptoms include lethargy, fatigue, depression, memory loss, psychosis, ataxia, delirium, and coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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How are the long chain fatty acids (more than 10 to 12 carbon atoms) absorbed?
Your Answer: Re-esterified to triglycerides and enter the lymphatics as chylomicrons
Explanation:Short and medium chain fatty acids are absorbed into the blood via intestinal capillaries and travel through the portal vein. Long chain fatty acids are not directly released into the intestinal capillaries. They are re-esterified to triglycerides and are coated with cholesterol and protein, forming chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are released in the lymphatic system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is troponin?
Your Answer: A component of thick filaments
Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments
Explanation:Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to?
Your Answer: Increased intracellular c amp
Correct Answer: Inhibition of the sodium potassium ATPase in the myocardium
Explanation:Digitalis compounds are potent inhibitors of cellular Na+/K+-ATPase. This ion transport system moves sodium ions out of the cell and brings potassium ions into the cell. By inhibiting the Na+/K+-ATPase, cardiac glycosides cause the intracellular sodium concentration to increase. This then leads to an accumulation of intracellular calcium via the Na+/Ca++ exchange system. In the heart, increased intracellular calcium causes more calcium to be released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thereby making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C, which increases contractility (inotropy).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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The ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds more closely with:
Your Answer: Isovolumetric contraction
Explanation:The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections (peaks) and two downward deflections (troughs) have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke when added to standard treatment plans in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. This information was shared in 2015 by The New England Journal of Medicine and the results were expressed per 1000 patient years. In fact, empagliflozin had an event rate of 37.3/1000 patient years and placebo an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years. How many patients who are at high cardiovascular risk need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent a cardiovascular death, a non-fatal myocardial infarction or a non-fatal stroke?
Your Answer: 50
Correct Answer: 150
Explanation:The number needed to treat (NNT) is an absolute effect measure that has been used to assess beneficial and harmful effects of medical interventions. In this case the NNT can be calculated as follows: NNT = 1/ Absolute risk reduction (ARR). ARR=(Control event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) – (Experimental event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) = 43.9-37.3 = 6.6/1000 patient yearsNNT=(Patient years)/ARR = 1000/ 6.6 = 151.5. The closest to 151.5 is 150, thus it is the correct answer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
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Question 30
Correct
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The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:
Your Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1
Explanation:Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition.
Your Answer: Rabies
Correct Answer: None of these
Explanation:There is no specific treatment for hepatitis A. Recovery from symptoms following infection may be slow and may take several weeks or months. The hepatitis A vaccine is effective for prevention and appears to be effective for life.Acute hepatitis B infection does not usually require treatment and most adults clear the infection spontaneously. Early antiviral treatment may be required in fewer than 1% of people, whose infection takes a very aggressive course (fulminant hepatitis) or who are immunocompromised. Although none of the available drugs can clear the infection, they can stop the virus from replicating, thus minimizing liver damage.There is no specific treatment for measles. Most people with uncomplicated measles will recover with rest and supportive treatment. In developed countries, children are immunized against measles at 12 months, generally as part of a three-part MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, and rubella). The vaccination is generally not given before this age because such infants respond inadequately to the vaccine due to an immature immune system. Treatment after rabies exposure can prevent the disease if administered promptly, generally within 10 days of infection. The Centres for Disease Control and Prevention recommends people receive one dose of human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) and four doses of rabies vaccine over a 14-day period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 32
Correct
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Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland.
Your Answer: The capillaries adjacent to thyroid cells have a fenestrated endothelium.
Explanation:Fenestrated capillaries have a very thin endothelium, which is perforated by numerous fenestrations or pores. Hormones are usually released into these capillaries, reaching their target cells through the circulatory system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell bodies in which nuclei?
Your Answer: Raphe
Correct Answer: Arcuate
Explanation:Arcuate nucleus dopaminergic neurons consist of a single group of neurons that project to the median eminence where they release dopamine into the hypophyseal portal circulation to inhibit pituitary prolactin secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 34
Correct
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What are the diagnostic criteria for an ST segment elevation type of acute myocardial infarction?
Your Answer: 1 mm ST elevation in 2 limb leads
Explanation:The current guidelines for the ECG diagnosis of the ST segment elevation type of acute myocardial infarction require at least 1 mm (0.1 mV) of ST segment elevation in the limb leads, and at least 2 mm elevation in the precordial leads. These elevations must be present in anatomically contiguous leads. (I, aVL, V5, V6 correspond to the lateral wall; V3-V4 correspond to the anterior wall ; V1-V2 correspond to the septal wall; II, III, aVF correspond to the inferior wall.)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 35
Correct
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Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight
Your Answer: It is sexually transmitted.
Explanation:Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) is the eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as primary effusion lymphoma and some types of multicentric Castleman’s disease. It is one of seven currently known human cancer viruses, or oncoviruses. The mechanisms by which the virus is contracted are not well understood. Healthy individuals can be infected with the virus and show no signs or symptoms, due to the immune system’s ability to keep the infection in check. Infection is of particular concern to the immunosuppressed. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy, AIDS patients and organ transplant patients are all at a high risk of showing signs of infection. The virus is sexually transmitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 36
Correct
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The a-wave is created by:
Your Answer: Regurgitation of some blood to the great veins when the atria contracts in atrial systole
Explanation:The a-wave created on the venous pulse curve occurs as a result of atrial systole. Due to the pressure build-up in the atria, it causes a back pressure in the vena cava. This pressure is exerted on the valve and this back pressure is what causes a slight increase in the venous pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except---
Your Answer: The cardiac output is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation though the heart
Correct Answer: In thermodilution, the indicator used is warm saline
Explanation:In thermodilution, the indicator used is cold saline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 38
Correct
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Where is the normal upper border of the liver situated?
Your Answer: 6th rib midclavicular line on right
Explanation:Assessment of liver margins is important clinically to determine the size of the liver and is done via percussion during the physical examination. The liver typically extends from the fifth intercostal space or 6th rib to the right costal margin in the midclavicular line and the 10th rib on anterior axillary line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?
Your Answer: Osteolytic areas with bone destruction
Correct Answer: Linear areas of low density
Explanation:Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which is the most common site for primary cardiac tumours to occur in adults?
Your Answer: Left atrial appendage
Correct Answer: Left atrium
Explanation:Myxomas are the most common type of primary heart tumour. The tumour is derived from multipotential mesenchymal cells and may cause a ball valve-type obstruction. About 75% of myxomas occur in the left atrium of the heart, usually beginning in the wall that divides the two upper chambers of the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 41
Correct
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The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the:
Your Answer: Edinger-Westphal nucleus
Explanation:The consensual light reflex occurs when an individual’s right eye is shielded and light shines into the left eye, constriction of the right pupil will occur, as well as the left. This is because the afferent signal sent through one optic nerve connects to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, whose axons run to both the right and the left oculomotor nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?
Your Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Are excited mainly by hypercapnia
Correct Answer: Contain catecholamines
Explanation:The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature.The carotid body is made up of two types of cells, called glomus cells: Glomus type I/chief cells release a variety of neurotransmitters, including acetylcholine, ATP, and dopamine that trigger EPSPs in synapsed neurons leading to the respiratory centre.Glomus type II/sustentacular cells resemble glia, express the glial marker S100 and act as supporting cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 44
Incorrect
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The function of the Golgi apparatus is
Your Answer: Transport of nuclear material around the cytoplasm
Correct Answer: Maturation of peptides secreted by the rER into functional proteins by glycosylation
Explanation:Steroidogenesis is a multi-step process that occurs in two organelles, the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and the mitochondrion. The Golgi apparatus is a major collection and dispatch station of protein products received from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Proteins synthesized in the ER are packaged into vesicles, which then fuse with the Golgi apparatus. The majority of proteins synthesized in the rough ER undergo glycosylation which occurs in the Golgi apparatus. Glycosylation mainly refers in particular to the enzymatic process that attaches glycans to proteins, lipids, or other organic molecules. These cargo proteins are modified and destined for secretion via exocytosis or for use in the cell. The Golgi apparatus is also involved in lipid transport and lysosome formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 45
Correct
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Which of the following cells release histamines when they are activated by binding of specific antigens to cell fixed IgE molecules?
Your Answer: Basophils
Explanation:Mast cells and basophils both contain granules of vasoactive histamine in their cytosol. Both of them express IgE receptors on their cell surface and upon binding with a specific antigen they release their cytokines including histamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Acetazolamide
Explanation:Acetazolamide is in the diuretic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor families of medication. It works by decreasing the amount of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate in the body and can thus cause metabolic acidosis and electrolyte changes (hypokalaemia, hyponatremia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 47
Correct
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Neurogenesis occurs throughout life in the following two areas:
Your Answer: Hippocampus and striatum
Explanation:In humans, neurogenesis or new neurons are continually born during adulthood in two regions of the brain: The subgranular zone (SGZ), part of the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the striatum. In other species of mammals, adult-born neurons also appear in the olfactory bulb. In humans, however, few if any olfactory bulb neurons are generated after birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 48
Correct
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An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home. He was diagnosed with osteoporosis about five years ago. He presently complains of significant low back pain. A lumbar spine X-ray was suggestive of a fractured lumbar vertebra. A subsequent MRI scan of the lumbosacral spine revealed a new L3 burst fracture with no evidence of cord compression. A neurosurgical consult was sought and conservative management was planned accordingly in the form of pain control, physiotherapy, and mobilization (as allowed by the pain). He also has been diagnosed with chronic renal disease (stage IV) with a creatinine clearance of 21ml/min, he was started on a Buprenorphine patch. Which of the following opioids would be safest to use for his breakthrough pain?
Your Answer: Oxycodone
Explanation:Oxycodone is a safer opioid to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure.Active metabolites of morphine accumulate in renal failure which means that long-term use is contraindicated in patients with moderate/severe renal failure. These toxic metabolites can accumulate causing toxicity and risk overdose. Oxycodone is mainly metabolised in the liver and thus safer to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure with dose reductions.Adverse effects:Constipation is the most common overall side effect. Others include: asthenia, dizziness, dry mouth, headache, nausea, pruritus, etc. Medications in renal failure:Drugs to be avoided in patients with renal failureAntibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoinNSAIDsLithiumMetforminDrugs that require dose adjustment:Most antibiotics including penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, streptomycinDigoxin, atenololMethotrexateSulphonylureasFurosemideOpioidsRelatively safe drugs:Antibiotics: erythromycin, rifampicinDiazepamWarfarin
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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In terms of relative steroid potency, how much prednisone is equivalent to 100mg hydrocortisone?
Your Answer: 100mg
Correct Answer: 25mg
Explanation:Different corticosteroids have varying degrees of potency. 1 mg of prednisone is equivalent to 4 mg of hydrocortisone. Therefore, 25 mg of prednisone are equivalent to 100 mg of hydrocortisone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 50
Correct
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Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use?
Your Answer: Inhibit Folic Acid metabolism
Explanation:Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
