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Question 1
Incorrect
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Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Is used in poisoning or overdoses with alkaline drugs
Correct Answer: Can be used in a barbiturate overdose
Explanation:In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.
With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.
By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.
The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.
The fluid regimen recommended is:
500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
500ml of 5% dextrose and
500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?
Your Answer: Arch of the aorta
Correct Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter
Explanation:The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.
The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
2. Thoracic constrictions:
i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery.
He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with a limited exercise tolerance. He agrees to the procedure being performed with an interscalene brachial plexus block.
Which of the following neurological complications puts this patient at the greatest risk?Your Answer: Phrenic nerve block
Explanation:An ipsilateral phrenic nerve block will result from a successful interscalene block (ISB).
The phrenic nerve is the diaphragm’s sole motor supply, and ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis affects up to 100% of patients who receive ISBs. Phrenic nerve palsy is usually well tolerated and goes unnoticed by healthy people. However, forced vital capacity decreases by approximately 25%, which can produce ventilatory compromise in patients with limited pulmonary reserve, requiring assisted ventilation.
Vocal cord palsy occurs when the recurrent laryngeal nerve is inadvertently blocked, causing hoarseness and possibly acute respiratory insufficiency. Unless bilateral laryngeal nerve palsy occurs, which can cause severe laryngeal obstruction, this complication is usually of little consequence.
ISB can also cause cranial nerve X and XII palsy (Tapia’s syndrome). One-sided cord paralysis, aphonia, and the patient’s tongue deviating toward the block’s side are all symptoms.
When a local anaesthetic spreads to the stellate ganglion and its cervical sympathetic nerves, Horner’s syndrome can develop. Ptosis of the eyelid, miosis, and anhidrosis of the face are all symptoms. Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may not indicate that the brachial plexus is sufficiently blocked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?
Your Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure?
Your Answer: Stylomastoid foramen
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale. Other structures that pass through this foramen are the accessory meningeal artery, and occasionally, the lesser petrosal nerve.
These are the structures that pass through the other openings in the cranial fossa:
Foramen rotundum – Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve
Foramen lacerum – Greater petrosal nerve, traversed by the internal carotid artery
Superior orbital fissure – Oculomotor nerve; trochlear nerve; lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve; abducens nerve, superior ophthalmic vein
Stylomastoid foramen – facial nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:
Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.
What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?Your Answer: The potency of solution A is greater than solution B
Correct Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B
Explanation:The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:
1. To Increase the duration of block
2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).
The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?
Your Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in drug metabolism
Correct Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow
Explanation:The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:
Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.
The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:
When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.
Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes.
Which pair is correct?Your Answer: Cholinesterase and acetylcholine
Correct Answer: Glutamic acid decarboxylase and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Explanation:Glutamic acid decarboxylase is responsible for the catalyses of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Catechol-o-methyl transferase catalyses the degradation and inactivation of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine, epinephrine into metanephrine, and norepinephrine into normetanephrine and vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA).
Monoamine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of norepinephrine to vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA) and serotonin to 5-hydeoxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA).
Cholinesterase functions to catalyse the split of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are preparing to anaesthetize a 27-year-old woman for an acute diagnostic laparoscopy to rule out appendicitis.
She has no medical history and does not take any medications on a regular basis. You're going to do a quick sequence induction.
Which method of preoxygenation is the most effective and efficient?Your Answer: Mapleson A circuit with a fresh gas flow of 2-3 Ă— minute volume
Correct Answer: Mapleson A circuit with a fresh gas flow of 100 ml/kg
Explanation:Professor Mapleson classified non-rebreathing circuits based on the position of the APL valve, which controls fresh gas flow.
The Mapleson A (Magill) circuit is most effective in spontaneous breathing, requiring only 70-100 ml/kg (the patient’s minute volume) of fresh gas flow. The patient inhales fresh gas from the reservoir bag and tubing during inspiration. During expiration, the patient adds dead space gas (gas that hasn’t been exchanged) to the tubing and reservoir bag in addition to the fresh gas flow. At the patient’s end, alveolar gas is vented through the APL valve. During the expiratory pause, the fresh gas flow causes more gas to be released.
The Mapleson A is inefficient during controlled ventilation. Venting occurs during inspiration rather than during the expiratory phase, as it does during spontaneous ventilation. As a result, unless a high fresh gas flow of >20 L/minute is used, alveolar gas is rebreathed.
During spontaneous ventilation, the Mapleson D circuit is inefficient.
The oxygen concentration in a Hudson mask is insufficient to allow for adequate pre-oxygenation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 10
Correct
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A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few hours later, the patient developed fever of 38°C, hypertension, and agitation.
According to the patient's medical history, he is maintained on Levodopa and Selegiline for Parkinson's disease.
Which of the following is the most probable cause of his manifestation?Your Answer: Pethidine
Explanation:Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase leads to increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system.
Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is a strong agonist at the mu and kappa receptors. It inhibits pain neurotransmission and blocks muscarinic-specific actions.
Administering opioid analgesic is relatively contraindicated to individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors. This is because of the high incidence of serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. Onset of symptoms is within hours, and the treatment is mainly through sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.
The clinical findings are more consistent with Serotonin syndrome rather than exacerbation of Parkinson’s. Parkinson’s Disease (PD) exacerbations are defined as patient-reported or caregiver-reported episodes of subacute worsening of PD motor function in 1 or more domains (bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity, or PD-related postural instability/gait disturbance) that caused a decline in functional status, developed over a period of < 2 months, did not fluctuate with medication timing, and are not caused by intentional adjustments of PD medications by the treating neurologist. Malignant hyperthermia usually occurs within minutes of administration of a volatile anaesthetic, such as halothane, or succinylcholine. There is massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to fever, acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, trismus, clonus, and hypertension. In sepsis, it more common for patients to present with hypotension rather than hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension.
Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?Your Answer: 6
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.
S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: MaleOur patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)
The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.
At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?Your Answer: Brain
Correct Answer: Thyroid gland
Explanation:After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.
The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
1. Colour ultrasound sonography
2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
Hepatoportal 58
Kidney 420
Brain 54
Skin 13
Skeletal muscle 2.7
Heart 87
Carotid body 2000
Thyroid gland 560 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 14
Correct
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A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.
Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?Your Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV
Explanation:The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.
Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.
Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100 mmHg and 175/107 mmHg and her routine haematology, biochemistry, and 12-lead ECG are normal.
She is assessed on the day of surgery prior to laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair and is found to be normally fit and well. Documentation of previous blood pressure measurements from her general practitioner in the primary healthcare setting are not available.
What is your next course of action?Your Answer: Proceed with scheduled surgery without treatment
Explanation:The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.
The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.
Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.
Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.
In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.
However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas.
The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?Your Answer: Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: Helium
Explanation:The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:
The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
PV = nRT
Where:P = pressure
V = volume
n = moles of gas
T = temperature
R = universal gas constantHelium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.
Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.
Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).
At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?Your Answer: Kidney
Correct Answer: Heart
Explanation:At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.
The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.
CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.
CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:
Your Answer: In a neutral thermal environment
Explanation:The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.
Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.
The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:
Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)
The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:
It should follow a 12 -hour fast
No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently in the operating room and is being positioned to have a rapid sequence induction.
Prior to preoxygenation, the compartment likely to have the best oxygen reserve is:Your Answer: Myoglobin
Correct Answer: Red blood cells
Explanation:The following table shows the compartments and their relative oxygen reserve:
Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
Myoglobin 200 200
Interstitial space 25 160Oxygen reserves in the body, with room air and after oxygenation.
FAO2-alveolar fraction of oxygen rises to 95% after administration of 100% oxygen (CO2 = 5%)
FRC- Functional residual capacity – (the most important store of oxygen in the body) – 2,500-3,000 mL in medium sized adults
PaO2-partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood (80 mmHg breathing room air and 500 mmHg breathing 100% oxygen)
DF -dissolved form (0.3%)
PV-plasma volume (3L)
TG-total globular volume (5L)
Hb-haemoglobin concentration
SaO2-arterial oxygen concentration (98% breathing air and 100% when preoxygenated) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of facial pain. Upon further questioning, he reported that the pain was intermittent, often occurring spontaneously. The quality of the pain was sharp, and severity was moderate to moderately severe. The pain was non-radiating, and often involved the left maxillary and mandibular areas.
Other medical information of the patient, such as allergies and co-morbidities, were unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient?Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation:Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the fifth nerve. The pain seldom lasts more than a few seconds or a minute or two but may be so intense that the patient winces, hence the term tic. The paroxysms, experienced as single jabs or clusters, tend to recur frequently, both day and night, for several weeks at a time. They may occur spontaneously or with movements of affected areas evoked by speaking, chewing, or smiling. Another characteristic feature is the presence of trigger zones, typically on the face, lips, or tongue, that provoke attacks; patients may report that tactile stimuli – e.g., washing the face, brushing the teeth, or exposure to a draft of air – generate excruciating pain. An essential feature of trigeminal neuralgia is that objective signs of sensory loss cannot be demonstrated on examination.
Trigeminal neuralgia is relatively common, with an estimated annual incidence of 4–8 per 100,000 individuals. Middle-aged and elderly persons are affected primarily, and ,60% of cases occur in women. Onset is typically sudden, and bouts tend to persist for weeks or months before remitting spontaneously. Remissions may be long-lasting, but in most patients, the disorder ultimately recurs.
An ESR or CRP is indicated if temporal arteritis is suspected. In typical cases of trigeminal neuralgia, neuroimaging studies are usually unnecessary but may be valuable if MS is a consideration or in assessing overlying vascular lesions in order to plan for decompression surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.
The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?Your Answer: Venoconstriction
Explanation:In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.
In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.
Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.
In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.
In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.
Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.
Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.
The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman, is admitted into hospital. She has undergone a thoracoscopic sympathectomy.
To enable ease of access during surgery, her right arm has been abducted.
On examination, immediately after surgery, she is noted to have lost the ability to abduct her right arm, with the presence a weak lateral rotation in the same arm. She has also lost sensation in the outer aspect of the lower deltoid area of the skin.
Her symptoms are as a result of injury to a nerve during surgery. What nerve is it?Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The axillary nerve arises from spinal roots C5-C6. It has both sensory and motor functions:
Sensory: Provides innervation to the skin over the lower deltoid area
Motor: Provides innervation to the teres minor (responsible for stabilisation of glenohumeral joint and external rotation of shoulder joint) and deltoid muscles (responsible for abduction of arms glenohumeral joint).
Injury to the axillary nerve will result in the patient being unable to abduct the arm beyond 15 degrees and a loss of sensory feeling over lower deltoid area.
These symptoms could also be a result of over-abduction of the arm (>90°) which would cause the head of the humerus to become dislocated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 24
Correct
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The immediate physiological response to massive perioperative blood loss is:
Your Answer: Stimulation of baroreceptors in carotid sinus and aortic arch
Explanation:With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:
1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The statement that best describes temperature management is:
Your Answer: Thermocouples use the principle that resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Correct Answer: Gauge thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 26
Correct
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Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the contents of the porta hepatis?
Your Answer: Cystic duct
Explanation:The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures that enter and leave the porta hepatis are:
1. hepatic portal vein
2. hepatic artery
3. hepatic ducts
4. hepatic nerve plexus (It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve.)These structures supply and drain the liver. Only the hepatic vein is not part of the porta hepatis.
The porta hepatis is also surrounded by lymph nodes, that may enlarge to produce obstructive jaundice.
These structures divide immediately after or within the porta hepatis to supply the functional left and right lobes of the liver.The cystic duct lies outside the porta hepatis and is an important landmark in laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.
Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.
It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes less compliant because of age-related changes. Another cause of increased pulse pressure is which of the following?
Your Answer: Increased stroke volume
Explanation:Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.
Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.
Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.
Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume
Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 29
Correct
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A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment.
Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?Your Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles
Explanation:Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.
Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.
Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.
Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 30
Incorrect
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When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?
Your Answer: Donepezil
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.
Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.
Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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