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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Withdrawal from which of the following substances is associated with hypersomnia, hyperphagia, irritability?...

    Incorrect

    • Withdrawal from which of the following substances is associated with hypersomnia, hyperphagia, irritability?

      Your Answer: Cannabis

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine

      Explanation:

      Drug withdrawal symptoms after a period of substance abuse can lead to a range of symptoms. Amphetamines are known to cause hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and irritability, as well as vivid dreams as a result of withdrawal. Similar symptoms are found in cocaine withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal presents with symptoms such as insomnia, tremulousness and delirium. Ecstasy withdrawal includes irritation, mood swings, fatigue and insomnia. Heroin withdrawal presents with symptoms which include dilated pupils, insomnia, abdominal cramps and muscle aches. Withdrawal from prolonged cannabis use can cause depression, anxiety restlessness and insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Pin point pupils

      Explanation:

      Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are worried that he might have delayed growth as all his friends are taller than him. On examination, he has a preadolescent body habitus and no evidence of development of secondary sexual characteristics. Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone all match prepubertal range. Following an injection of GnRH, the LH and FSH concentrations increase only slightly. However, when the GnRH is given daily for 7 days, a normal response is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely causing this boy's delayed puberty?

      Your Answer: Mumps orchitis in childhood

      Correct Answer: A hypothalamic disorder

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadotropic hypogonadismIn Kallmann syndrome: impaired migration of GnRH cells and defective olfactory bulb → ↓ GnRH in hypothalamus → ↓ FSH and ↓ LH → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogenIn hypothalamic and/or pituitary lesions: ↓ pituitary gonadotropins (↓ FSH and ↓ LH) → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogen

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29...

    Correct

    • A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?

      Your Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume

      Explanation:

      Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4–6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A new-born has several strawberry naevi. You're concerned about internal haemangiomas. How many...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born has several strawberry naevi. You're concerned about internal haemangiomas. How many naevi should warrant further investigation?

      Your Answer: More than 2

      Correct Answer: More than 5

      Explanation:

      Eight percentage of infantile haemangiomas are focal and solitary. Sixty percent of cutaneous haemangiomas occur on the head and neck, 25% on the trunk, and 15% on the extremities. Haemangiomas also can occur in extracutaneous sites, including the liver, gastrointestinal tract, larynx, CNS, pancreas, gall bladder, thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, lung, urinary bladder, and adrenal glands.Guidelines on the management of infantile haemangioma were released in December 2018 by the American Academy of Paediatrics stating that:Imaging is not necessary unless the diagnosis is uncertain, there are five or more cutaneous infantile haemangiomas present, or there is suspicion of anatomic abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A neonate is born with a suspected duct dependent cyanotic heart disease. Which...

    Correct

    • A neonate is born with a suspected duct dependent cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following should be used in the immediate management of the condition?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1

      Explanation:

      Severe cyanotic heart diseases such as pulmonary stenosis, transposition of the great vessels, hypoplastic left heart syndrome and truncus arteriosus all run the risk of a poor prognosis for a neonate. To continue the supply of oxygen the ductus arteriosus must be kept patent. This can be done with the immediate administration of Prostaglandin E1 as a temporary measure until a surgical intervention such as an atrial septostomy can be done. The closure of the duct can subsequently be initiated with the administration of indomethacin and oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 17-year-old male undergoes an emergency appendectomy for perforated appendix. Postoperatively, he develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male undergoes an emergency appendectomy for perforated appendix. Postoperatively, he develops disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which one of the following clotting factors are most rapidly consumed in this process?

      Your Answer: Factor VI and VIII

      Correct Answer: Factor V and VIII

      Explanation:

      Factors V and VIII are consumed most rapidly in a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation.Simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage caused by initially formation of thrombi which consume clotting factors (factors 5,8) and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding.Causes include:- Infection- Malignancy- Trauma e.g. major surgery, burns, shock, dissecting aortic aneurysm- Liver disease- Obstetric complicationsClinically bleeding is usually a dominant feature, bruising, ischaemia and organ failure.Blood tests reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen and increased fibrinogen degradation products.Treatment of DIC involves treating the underlying cause and supportive management.Mnemonic:D-I-S-S-E-M-I-N-A-T-E-DD- D dimerI-Immune complexesS-Snakebite, shock, heatstrokeS-SLEE-Eclampsia, HELLP syndromeM-Massive tissue damageI-Infections: viral and bacterialN-NeoplasmsA-Acute promyelocytic leukaemiaT-Tumour products: Tissue Factor (TF) and TF-like factors released by carcinomas of pancreas, prostate, lung,colon, stomachE-Endotoxins (bacterial)D-Dead foetus (retained)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      27.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (2/3) 67%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
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