00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning?

      Your Answer: Sweating and lacrimation

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Opioid poisoning is classically associated with pinpoint pupils, reduced respiratory rate, bradycardia, drowsiness and coma. Hypothermia is a feature of barbiturate poisoning, while sweating and lacrimation are seen in cases of opiate withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily.Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?

      Your Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions. This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The functional unit of the liver is called? ...

    Correct

    • The functional unit of the liver is called?

      Your Answer: Acini

      Explanation:

      From a metabolic perspective, the functional unit is the hepatic acinus (terminal acinus), each of which is centred on the line connecting two portal triads and extends outwards to the two adjacent central veins. The periportal zone I is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood, making it least sensitive to ischemic injury while making it very susceptible to viral hepatitis. Conversely, the centrilobular zone III has the poorest oxygenation, and will be most affected during a time of ischemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness: ...

    Correct

    • A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness:

      Your Answer: In the eye on the same side as the optic nerve

      Explanation:

      The optic nerve on each side contains medial and lateral fibers originating from the retina. Medial fibers cross at the optic chiasm and become the optic tract ending in the visual cortex of the occipital lobe. If there is a lesion interrupting the “optic nerve” on one side, the same side eye will be completely blind.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:

      Your Answer: Columnar epithelial cells

      Correct Answer: Mesothelial cells

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Pancreatic juice is usually? ...

    Correct

    • Pancreatic juice is usually?

      Your Answer: Alkaline

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic juice is alkaline in nature and has a high amount of bicarbonate ions. About 1500 ml is secreted every day. It also contains a large quantity of enzymes in the inactive form.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following stimuli increase growth hormone secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimuli increase growth hormone secretion?

      Your Answer: Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I)

      Correct Answer: Ghrelin

      Explanation:

      Ghrelin is a hormone which serves as an endogenous ligand for the growth hormone secretagogue receptor. It acts on the pituitary and the hypothalamus by affecting the vagus nerve. It acts on the somatotrophs of the anterior pituitary, GHRH-secreting neurons, and on GHIH-secreting neurons in the hypothalamus, causing a time-dependent and pulsatile stimulation over the secretion of growth hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Correct

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to? ...

    Correct

    • The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to?

      Your Answer: Drain the venous supply of the myocardium

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the heart muscle (myocardium). It delivers deoxygenated blood to the right atrium, as do the superior and inferior vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are: ...

    Correct

    • The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are:

      Your Answer: Dendric cells

      Explanation:

      Only professional antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, B lymphocytes, and dendritic cells) are able to activate a resting helper T-cell when the matching antigen is presented. However, macrophages and B cells can only activate memory T cells whereas dendritic cells can activate both memory and naive T cells, and are the most potent of all the antigen-presenting cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase. ...

    Incorrect

    • The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.

      Your Answer: Stem cells

      Correct Answer: Germ cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound?

      Your Answer: Ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle in atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following intercellular connections is important in endothelial barrier function? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following intercellular connections is important in endothelial barrier function?

      Your Answer: Tight junctions

      Explanation:

      Tight junctions surround the apical margins of the epithelial cells such as in the intestinal mucosa and the choroid plexus. They are also important to the endothelial barrier function. They are made up of ridges that adhere to each other strongly at the cell junction, obliterating the space completely between the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Although rare, ocular toxicity in the form of optic neuritis (most commonly retrobulbar neuritis) has been well documented as a side effect of ethambutol. It is renally excreted and not associated with hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones?

      Your Answer: They are released in response to hypervolemia

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic hormones are vasodilators released in response to hypervolemia.

      Natriuretic hormones (NH) include three groups of compounds: the natriuretic peptides NPs (ANP, BNP and CNP), the gastrointestinal peptides (guanylin and uroguanylin), and endogenous cardiac steroids. These substances induce the kidney to excrete sodium and therefore participate in the regulation of sodium and water homeostasis, blood volume, and blood pressure (BP). In addition to their peripheral functions, these hormones act as neurotransmitters or neuromodulators in the brain.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) plays a crucial role in blood pressure regulation by inducing natriuresis and diuresis in the kidney, inhibiting renin secretion, aldosterone production, and promoting vasorelaxation.  Two paracrine factors derived from endothelial cells play important roles in modulating ANP secretion. Endothelin, a potent vasoconstrictor, stimulates ANP secretion and augments stretch induced ANP secretion. The dramatic increase in ANP release produced by cardiac ischemia appears to be mediated in part by endothelin. Nitric oxide (NO), an important vasodilator, is also produced by endothelial cells and inhibits ANP secretion.

      Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) shares ANP’s receptor but is primarily associated with antifibrotic effects in ventricular remodeling, serving as a biomarker for heart failure and myocardial infarction.

      C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP) acts locally in an autocrine/paracrine manner, exerting potent cardiovascular effects, including vasorelaxation and vascular remodeling post-injury. NPs also demonstrate diverse effects beyond cardiovascular and renal systems, such as bronchodilation, anti-inflammatory actions, and metabolic effects on adipose tissue and long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Select the CORRECT statement regarding bile salts… ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the CORRECT statement regarding bile salts…

      Your Answer: Contain enzymes required for the digestion of fat.

      Correct Answer: Are necessary for any bile acid secretion by hepatocytes.

      Explanation:

      Bile salts stimulate bile secretion by the liver. Bile salts do not have an enzymatic action on digestion of fat but rather emulsify fat for the action of enzymes secreted mainly by the pancreas. Bile salts are polar cholesterol derivatives and are not derived from amino acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Correct

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct...

    Incorrect

    • In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct actions of:

      Your Answer: Factor XIa & XIIa

      Correct Answer: Factor VIIa & XIa

      Explanation:

      Factor IX is processed to remove the signal peptide, glycosylated and then cleaved by factor XIa (of the contact pathway) or factor VIIa (of the tissue factor pathway). When activated into factor IXa, in the presence of Ca2+, membrane phospholipids, and a Factor VIII cofactor, it hydrolyses one arginine-isoleucine bond in factor X to form factor Xa. Factor IX is inhibited by antithrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In Hirschsprung disease which one is incorrect ...

    Incorrect

    • In Hirschsprung disease which one is incorrect

      Your Answer: The absence of peristalsis in the aganglionic region causes the symptoms

      Correct Answer: Due to congenital absence of myenteric and submucosal plexuses

      Explanation:

      During normal prenatal development, cells from the neural crest migrate into the large intestine (colon) to form the networks of nerves called the myenteric plexus (Auerbach plexus) (between the smooth muscle layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall) and the submucosal plexus (Meissner plexus) (within the submucosa of the gastrointestinal tract wall). In Hirschsprung’s disease, the migration is not complete and part of the colon lacks these nerve bodies that regulate the activity of the colon. The affected segment of the colon cannot relax and pass stool through the colon, creating an obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the most important determinant of ECF volume? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?

      Your Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF

      Explanation:

      The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following provides the sympathetic nervous supply to the stomach? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following provides the sympathetic nervous supply to the stomach?

      Your Answer: Coeliac plexus

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic innervation to the stomach is from the vagus nerve and the sympathetic innervation is from the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - After eating a meal containing a moderate amount of fat, which percentage of...

    Incorrect

    • After eating a meal containing a moderate amount of fat, which percentage of fat is likely to be absorbed from the GIT in an adult?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      About 95% of dietary fat is absorbed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit:

      Your Answer: All gene mutations cause clinical disease entities

      Explanation:

      All gene mutations do not cause a clinical manifestation of the disease, some gene mutations are silent mutations. They are present but do not cause any disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series...

    Correct

    • At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series of membrane compartments known as:

      Your Answer: Tubulovesicles

      Explanation:

      The gastric H, K-ATPase pump, which pumps gastric acid (HCl), in the resting state is found in cytoplasmic tubular membranes. In the stimulated state this pump moves from the tubulovesicles to the apical membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The celiac trunk consists of which arteries? ...

    Correct

    • The celiac trunk consists of which arteries?

      Your Answer: Left gastric, common hepatic, splenic

      Explanation:

      The celiac trunk is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta. It is 1.25 cm in length. Branching from the aorta at thoracic vertebra 12 (T12). There are three main divisions of the celiac artery:- left gastric artery- common hepatic artery- splenic artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding the formation of CSF, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the formation of CSF, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Brain interstitial fluid and CSF do not communicate freely

      Correct Answer: Its composition resembles that of brain ECF

      Explanation:

      In normal adults CSF volume is around 125ml to 150ml. Turnover of entire volume of cerebrospinal fluid a day is about 3 to 4 times a day. Composition of CSF is similar to that of plasma except that CSF is nearly protein-free compared with plasma and has a different electrolyte level. About 80% of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus. It is also produced by a single layer of column shaped ependymal cells. The composition and rate of CSF generation depends on several factors and is influenced by hormones and the content and pressure of blood and CSF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is...

    Correct

    • Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:

      Your Answer: Ferroportin

      Explanation:

      Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?...

    Incorrect

    • The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?

      Your Answer: Arachnoid mater

      Correct Answer: Tela choroidea

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain. It consists of modified ependymal cells. Tela choroidea is a region of pia mater of the meninges and underlying ependyma that’s a part of the choroid plexus. It is a very thin layer of the connective tissue of pia mater that overlies and covers the ependyma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      13.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (20/30) 67%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/4) 25%
Gastrointestinal (3/5) 60%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (5/5) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Passmed