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  • Question 1 - What is the 5 year survival rate of a patient who is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • What is the 5 year survival rate of a patient who is diagnosed with stage III colon cancer, who underwent successful resection and completed the prescribed session of adjuvant chemotherapy?

      Your Answer: 30%–60%

      Explanation:

      In this patient who has stage III colon cancer, the survival rate is 30-60%. For stage I or Dukes’ stage A disease, the 5-year survival rate after surgical resection exceeds 90%. For stage II or Dukes’ stage B disease, the 5-year survival rate is 70%–85% after resection, with or without adjuvant therapy. For stage III or Dukes’ stage C disease, the 5-year survival rate is 30%– 60% after resection and adjuvant chemotherapy and for stage IV or Dukes’ stage D disease, the 5-year survival rate is poor (approximately 5%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part...

    Correct

    • The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part of the lacrimal sac and drains into which structure?

      Your Answer: Inferior meatus

      Explanation:

      The nasolacrimal duct carries tears from the lacrimal sac of the eye into the nasal cavity. The duct begins in the eye socket between the maxillary and lacrimal bones, from where it passes downwards and backwards. The opening of the nasolacrimal duct into the inferior nasal meatus of the nasal cavity is partially covered by a mucosal fold (valve of Hasner or plica lacrimalis). Excess tears flow through the nasolacrimal duct which drains into the inferior nasal meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form? ...

    Correct

    • Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in various forms:

      – Bicarbonate (80–90%)

      – Carbamino compounds (5–10%)

      – Physically dissolved in solution (5%).

      Carbon dioxide is carried on the haemoglobin molecule as carbamino-haemoglobin; carboxyhaemoglobin is the combination of haemoglobin with carbon monoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory; Cardiovascular
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which foramen contains the vertebral artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which foramen contains the vertebral artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata. Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the normal amount of oxygen that is carried in the blood?...

    Correct

    • What is the normal amount of oxygen that is carried in the blood?

      Your Answer: 20 ml oxygen/100 ml blood

      Explanation:

      Normally, 100 ml of blood contains 15g haemoglobin and a single gram of haemoglobin can bind to 1.34 ml oxygen when 100% saturated. Thus, 15 × 1.34 = 20 ml O2/100 ml blood. The haemoglobin in venous blood that is leaving the tissues is about 75% saturated with oxygen, and hence it carries about 15 ml O2/100 ml venous blood. This implies that for each 10 ml of blood, 5 ml oxygen is transported to the tissues. With a p(O2) > 100 mm Hg, only 3 ml of oxygen is dissolved in every one litre of plasma. By increasing the pA(O2) by breathing 100% oxygen, one can add an extra amount of oxygen in the plasma, but the amount of oxygen carried by haemoglobin will not increase significantly as it is already > 95% saturated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no history of fever and the diarrhoea stops on fasting. Which is the most likely type of diarrhoea that he is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Osmotic

      Explanation:

      The different types of diarrhoea are:

      1. Secretory diarrhoea – Due to increased secretion or decreased absorption. There is minimal to no structural damage in this type. The most common cause is cholera toxin which stimulates secretion of anions (especially chloride), with sodium and water.

      2. Osmotic diarrhoea – Due to increased osmotic load, there is water loss. This occurs in cases of maldigestion syndromes, such as coeliac or pancreatic disease.

      3. Motility-related diarrhoea – Occurs in cases of abnormal gastrointestinal motility. Due to increased motility, there is poor absorption and this leads to diarrhoea. This is seen post-vagotomy or in diabetic neuropathy.

      4. Inflammatory diarrhoea – Due to damage to the mucosa or brush border, there is a loss of protein-rich fluids and poor absorption. Features of all the above three types can be seen in this type. Aetiology includes bacterial, viral, parasitic infections or autoimmune problems including inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of...

    Correct

    • A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer: High platelet count

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that results in an increase in the total number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It can be due to a myeloproliferative syndrome, chronically low oxygen levels or rarely malignancy. In primary polycythaemia/ polycythaemia vera the increase is due to an abnormality in the bone marrow, resulting in increased RBCs, white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. In secondary polycythaemia the increase occurs due to high levels of erythropoietin either artificially or naturally. The increase is about 6-8 million/cm3 of blood. A type of secondary polycythaemia is physiological polycythaemia where people living in high altitudes who are exposed to hypoxic conditions produce more erythropoietin as a compensatory mechanism for thin oxygen and low oxygen partial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa?

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Correct Answer: Lactase

      Explanation:

      Lactase, an enzyme belonging to β-galactosidase family of enzymes, brings about the hydrolysis of the disaccharide lactose into galactose and glucose. In humans, it is present along the brush border membrane of the cells lining the small intestinal villi. Deficiency of lactase causes lactose intolerance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure?

      Your Answer: –10 cmH2O

      Correct Answer: +10 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      To determine compliance of the respiratory system, changes in transmural pressures (in and out) immediately across the lung or chest cage (or both) are measured simultaneously with changes in lung or thoracic cavity volume. Changes in lung or thoracic cage volume are determined using a spirometer with transmural pressures measured by pressure transducers. For the lung alone, transmural pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar (pA; inside) and intrapleural (ppl; outside) pressure. To calculate chest cage compliance, transmural pressure is ppl (inside) minus atmospheric pressure (pB; outside). For the combined lung–chest cage, transmural pressure or transpulmonary pressure is computed as pA – pB. pA pressure is determined by having the subject deeply inhale a measured volume of air from a spirometer. Under physiological conditions the transpulmonary or recoil pressure is always positive; intrapleural pressure is always negative and relatively large, while alveolar pressure moves from slightly negative to slightly positive as a person breathes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Correct

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with fever for the past 2 months. A chest x ray revealed a diffuse bilateral reticulonodular pattern. A transbronchial biopsy was performed and histological examination showed focal areas of inflammation with epithelioid macrophages, Langhans cells and lymphocytes. Which of the immune reaction is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      A reactivated tuberculosis with granuloma formation is characteristic of type IV reaction. It is also called a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction and takes around 2-8 days to deliver. It is a cell mediated response with the involvement of CD8 and CD4 cells and the release of IL-1 from macrophages that further activate these CD cells.

      Granulomatous reactions are mostly cell-mediated.

      Type I reactions are allergic and anaphylactic reactions and type II are complement-mediated immune reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of...

    Correct

    • Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Outer membrane

      Explanation:

      The reason bacteria are either Gram-positive or Gram-negative is due to the structure of their cell envelope (the cell envelope is defined as the cell membrane and cell wall plus an outer membrane, if one is present.) Gram-positive bacteria, for example, retain the crystal violet due to the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. It can be said therefore that the Gram-stain procedure separates bacteria into two broad categories based on structural differences in the cell envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the...

    Correct

    • When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the upper limb are you resting on?

      Your Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna

      Explanation:

      At the upper and back part of the ulna, there exists a curved eminence which is the olecranon process. This process lodges in the olecranon fossa of the humerus. It’s posterior surface is subcutaneous and this triangular area is what you rest your elbow upon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal...

    Correct

    • Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?

      Your Answer: Peroneal

      Explanation:

      The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant...

    Correct

    • The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:

      Your Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of...

    Correct

    • Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of plasma. Which microbial product is responsible for this activity?

      Your Answer: Coagulase

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most pathogenic species and is implicated in a variety of infections.  S. aureus can be identified due to its production of coagulase. The staphylococcal enzyme coagulase will cause inoculated citrated rabbit plasma to gel or coagulate. The coagulase converts soluble fibrinogen in the plasma into insoluble fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following bones was most likely fractured following an injury in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following bones was most likely fractured following an injury in the medial side of the foot between the navicular behind and base of the first metatarsal in front?

      Your Answer: Second cuneiform

      Correct Answer: First cuneiform

      Explanation:

      The first cuneiform bone is the largest of the three cuneiforms. It is situated at the medial side of the foot, between the navicular behind and the base of the first metatarsal in front.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A retroperitoneal structure is: ...

    Correct

    • A retroperitoneal structure is:

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal structures are those that are found behind the peritoneum. They include: kidneys, suprarenal glands, bladder, ureter, inferior vena cava, rectum, oesophagus (part of it), part of the pancreas, 2nd, 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum and ascending and descending parts of the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be inflamed due to paronychia involving the big toe?

      Your Answer: Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Paronychia affecting the big toe will result in inflammation of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes as it drains lymph from the big toe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Correct

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      70.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon accidentally cuts the first aortic intercostal arteries as he mobilised the descending aorta. Which one of the following structure might be deprived of its primary source of blood supply following this injury?

      Your Answer: Right bronchus

      Explanation:

      The right bronchus is supplied by one right bronchial artery that may branch from one of the left bronchial arteries or from the right 3rd posterior intercostal artery (this is the first intercostal artery that arises from the aorta). Damage to this artery might stop blood supply to the main bronchus. Intercostal arteries that go to the first and the second interspaces originate from the highest intercostal artery such that blood supply to either of these spaces would not be interfered with.

      The left bronchus receives blood from 2 left bronchial arteries which are direct branches from the descending aorta.

      Fibrous pericardium is the sac that contains the heart. Its blood supply is not a major concern.

      Visceral pericardium receives its blood supply from the coronary vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells...

    Correct

    • The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells was blocked by a drug. Which of the following transmembrane proteins were blocked by this drug?

      Your Answer: K+ channels

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential is due to selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions. The Na/K pump is responsible for the generation of a gradient across the membrane and it is due to the inherent ability of the K channels to allow diffusion back into the nerve at rest which charges the cells. In reality, the resting membrane potential is more positive because of small contributions by Na+ channels, Cl− channels and non-selective cation channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The normal location of the major duodenal papilla: ...

    Incorrect

    • The normal location of the major duodenal papilla:

      Your Answer: Ascending part of the duodenum

      Correct Answer: Descending part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The major duodenal papilla is on the descending portion of the duodenum on the medial side, about 7-10cm from the pylorus. The pancreatic ducts and the common bile ducts unite and open by a common orifice on the summit of the duodenal papilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which best describes the sartorius muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which best describes the sartorius muscle?

      Your Answer: Is innervated by the same nerve as the tensor fascia lata

      Correct Answer: Will flex the leg at the knee joint

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle arises from tendinous fibres from the superior iliac spine. It passes obliquely across the thigh from lateral to medial and is inserted into the upper part of the medial side of the tibia. When the sartorius muscle contracts it will flex the leg at the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?

      Your Answer: Dupuytren’s contracture

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen: ...

    Correct

    • Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen:

      Your Answer: Oesophageal hiatus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is located in the muscular part of the diaphragm a T10 and is above, in front and a little to the left of the aortic hiatus. It transmits the oesophagus, the vagus nerves and some small oesophageal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      121.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother...

    Correct

    • The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother is:

      Your Answer: Acute mastitis

      Explanation:

      Acute mastitis results due to bacterial infection of the breast and results in signs of inflammation. It commonly occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum and common causative microorganisms are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, and Escherichia coli. Complications like an abscess can be avoided by prompt treatment, which includes antibiotics and rest along with continued lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in a young women who suffered serious burns to her chest and hands?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A deficiency

      Explanation:

      Healing can be sped-up or slowed down due to various reasons: 1. blood supply, 2. infection, 3. denervation, 4. collection of blood/hematoma, 5. mechanical stress, 6. foreign body, 7. techniques used during surgery and 8. dressing of the wound. Other systemic factors include 1. nutrition e.g. deficiency of zinc, vitamin C, protein deficiency, 2. metabolic status, 3. circulatory status and 4. hormonal influence

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Correct

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater...

    Incorrect

    • During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater curvature of the stomach. Where do the short gastric arteries branch from?

      Your Answer: Hepatic artery

      Correct Answer: Splenic artery

      Explanation:

      Short gastric arteries arise from the splenic artery at the end or from its terminal divisions. They are about 5 or 7 in number, passing from the left to the right in between the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament to be distributed along the greater curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male,...

    Incorrect

    • A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male, chronic smoker will mostly likely show which cellular adaptation?

      Your Answer: Mucous hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is a change in the cell type caused in part due to an extrinsic stress on the organ. It involves a change in the surface epithelium from one cell type to the another, most commonly squamous to columnar. This is a reversible process, and removal of the stress should theoretically reverse the surface epithelium back to normal morphology. Respiratory tract metaplasia is a classic example, in which the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium to better cope with the stress. Under continuous stress metaplasia can progress to dysplasia which is a disordered growth of cells eventually leading to the development of carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the: ...

    Correct

    • Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the:

      Your Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      Structures passing through the foramen magnum include the medulla, meninges, tectorial membrane, anterior spinal artery, vertebral artery and spinal branches of the accessory nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of...

    Correct

    • Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of cancer. Which of the following is the correct indication for this drug?

      Your Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Etoposide phosphate is an inhibitor of the enzyme topoisomerase II. It is used as a form of chemotherapy for malignancies such as lung cancer, testicular cancer, lymphoma, non-lymphocytic leukaemia and glioblastoma multiforme. Side effects are very common and can include low blood cell counts, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, hair loss, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Lung compliance is increased by: ...

    Correct

    • Lung compliance is increased by:

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Lung compliance is increased by emphysema, acute asthma and increasing age and decreased by alveolar oedema, pulmonary hypertension, atelectasis and pulmonary fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - During an operation for a sigmoid colectomy the surgeon ligates the sigmoid arteries....

    Correct

    • During an operation for a sigmoid colectomy the surgeon ligates the sigmoid arteries. From which artery do the sigmoid arteries branch?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Sigmoid arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA). Sigmoid artery gives off branches that supply the lower descending colon, the iliac colon and the sigmoid colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Vincristine is a chemotherapy agent used to treat a number of types of...

    Incorrect

    • Vincristine is a chemotherapy agent used to treat a number of types of cancer. Which of the following is a recognised major side-effect of vincristine?

      Your Answer: Myelosuppression

      Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Vincristine is an alkaloid chemotherapeutic agent. It is used to treat a number of types of cancer including acute lymphocytic leukaemia, acute myeloid leukaemia, Hodgkin’s disease, neuroblastoma, and small cell lung cancer among others. The main side-effects of vincristine are peripheral neuropathy and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrion

      Explanation:

      A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is:

      Your Answer: Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase

      Correct Answer: Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase

      Explanation:

      Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) may be the only laboratory abnormality in patients who are dependent on alcohol. Heavy drinkers may also have an increased MCV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Physiology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of...

    Correct

    • Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      77.9
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Posterior superior alveolar nerve

      Correct Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The following branch of the aorta is unpaired: ...

    Correct

    • The following branch of the aorta is unpaired:

      Your Answer: Coeliac artery

      Explanation:

      Branches that stem from the abdominal aorta can be divided into three: the visceral branches, parietal branches and terminal branches. Of the visceral branches, the suprarenal, renal, testicular and ovarian arteries are paired while the coeliac artery and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are unpaired. Of the parietal branches the inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries are paired while the middle sacral artery is unpaired. The terminal branches i.e. the common iliac arteries are paired.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than...

    Incorrect

    • A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than a slowly developing loud sound. This is because:

      Your Answer: A sudden sound directly damages the vestibular nerve

      Correct Answer: There is a latent period before the attenuation reflex can occur

      Explanation:

      On transmission of a loud sound into the central nervous system, an attenuation reflex occurs after a latent period of 40-80 ms. This reflex contracts the two muscles that pull malleus and stapes closer, developing a high degree of rigidity in the entire ossicular chain. This reduces the ossicular conduction of low frequency sounds to the cochlea by 30-40 decibels. In this way, the cochlea is protected from damage due to loud sounds (these are low frequency sounds) when they develop slowly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with vasculitis and the histopathological sample revealed giant-cell arteritis. What is the most probable diagnose?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA), also known as temporal arteritis, is the most common systemic inflammatory vasculitis that occurs in adults. It is of unknown aetiology and affects arteries large to small however the involvement of the superficial temporal arteries is almost always present. Other commonly affected arteries include the ophthalmic, occipital and vertebral arteries, therefore GCA can result in systemic, neurologic, and ophthalmologic complications. GCA usually is found in patients older than 50 years of age and should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache accompanied by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Diagnosis depends on the results of artery biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level of the nape of the neck will most likely affect:

      Your Answer: Proprioception from the ipsilateral leg

      Correct Answer: Vibratory sensations from the ipsilateral arm

      Explanation:

      At the level mentioned in the question, the lateral portion of dorsal columns comprises of the fasciculus cuneatus. Axons carrying the sensations of touch, vibration and proprioception from the ipsilateral arm enter the spinal cord and ascend in the fasciculus cuneatus, synapsing in the nucleus cuneatus of the caudal medulla. Secondary neurons from this nucleus give rise to internal arcuate fibres, which decussate and ascend to the thalamus as the medial lemniscus. Tertiary neurons from there project to the ipsilateral somatosensory cortex. Thus, any damage to the fasciculus cuneatus will result in a deficit in tactile, proprioceptive and vibratory sensations in the ipsilateral arm, and not the contralateral arm.

      Fine motor control of the fingers is mainly carried by the ipsilateral lateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Motor control of the contralateral foot is carried by the ipsilateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Lack of sweating of the face could be produced by interruption of sympathetic innervation. Proprioception from the ipsilateral leg is carried by the fasciculus gracilis in the medial part of the dorsal columns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      181
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 45 years old women was diagnosed with breast cancer. After a radical...

    Correct

    • A 45 years old women was diagnosed with breast cancer. After a radical mastectomy to remove all axillary lymph nodes from her right breast, it was noticed that she had a winged scapula. Which nerve injury would explain this?

      Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle. When this nerve is injured the muscle undergoes paralysis, which is seen clinically as winging of the scapula most apparent when the arm is lifted forward. The long thoracic nerve is greatly susceptible to injury during breast surgery because of its long and superficial course along the thorax from its origin, the brachial plexus, to the lower border of the serratus anterior muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Breast
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice?

      Your Answer: Hepatic disease if plasma albumin is low and serum aminotransferase elevations > 500 units

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can occur due to any of the possible causes and treatment depends upon diagnosing the correct condition. Mild hyperbilirubinemia with normal levels of aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase is often unconjugated (e.g., due to haemolysis or Gilbert’s syndrome rather than hepatobiliary disease). Moderate or severe hyperbilirubinemia along with increased urinary bilirubin (bilirubinuria), high alkaline phosphatase or aminotransferase levels suggest hepatobiliary disease. Hyperbilirubinemia produced by any hepatobiliary disease is largely conjugated. In this case, other blood tests include hepatitis serology for suspected hepatitis, prothrombin time (PT) or international normalised ratio (INR), albumin and globulin levels, and antimitochondrial antibody levels (suspected primary biliary cirrhosis). Low albumin and high globulin levels suggest chronic rather than acute liver disease. In cases where there is only a an elevation of alkaline phosphatase, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) levels should be checked – the levels of which will be found high in hepatobiliary disease, but not in bone disorder which can also lead to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. In diseases of hepatobiliary origin, aminotransferase elevations > 500 units suggest a hepatocellular cause, whereas disproportionate increases of alkaline phosphatase (e.g., alkaline phosphatase > 3 times normal and aminotransferase < 200 units) suggest cholestasis. Because hepatobiliary disease alone rarely causes bilirubin levels > 30 mg/dl, higher levels are suggestive of a combination of severe hepatobiliary disease and haemolysis or renal dysfunction. Imaging is best for diagnosing infiltrative and cholestatic causes of jaundice. Liver biopsy is rarely needed, but can be of use in intrahepatic cholestasis and in some types of hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Ileum

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      37.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Pathology (10/14) 71%
Anatomy (17/23) 74%
Head & Neck (4/5) 80%
Physiology (8/13) 62%
Respiratory; Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
General (3/3) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (3/3) 100%
Upper Limb (3/3) 100%
Women's Health (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (3/5) 60%
Abdomen (5/8) 63%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Breast (1/1) 100%
Passmed