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Question 1
Correct
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the primary function of collagen in wound healing?
Your Answer: Strength and support
Explanation:Key elements of the maturation stage include collagen cross-linking, collagen remodelling, wound contraction, and repigmentation. The tensile strength of the wound is directly proportional to the amount of collagen present. Numerous types of collagen have been identified; types I and III predominate in the skin and aponeurotic layers. Initially, a triple helix (tropocollagen) is formed by three protein chains; two are identical alpha-1 protein chains, and the third is an alpha-2 protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?
Your Answer: 14-21
Correct Answer: 5-Jul
Explanation:Shortly after the morula enters the uterus, around the 4th day after fertilization, a clear cystic cavity starts forming inside the morula. The fluid passes through the zona pellucida from the uterine cavity and hence forms the blastocyst.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which enzyme deficiency causes Beriberi?
Your Answer: Folate
Correct Answer: Thiamine
Explanation:Beriberi refers to a cluster of symptoms caused primarily by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Symptoms of beriberi include weight loss, emotional disturbances, impaired sensory perception, weakness and pain in the limbs, and periods of irregular heart rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Horner's syndrome?
Your Answer: Horner's syndrome results from damage to secretomotor parasympathetic fibres.
Correct Answer: Miosis occurs due to paralysis of the dilator pupillae muscle.
Explanation:The characteristics of Horner’s syndrome are pupil constriction, partial ptosis and anhidrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is first to rise following myocardial infarction?
Your Answer: Lactate dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Myoglobin
Explanation:Myoglobin, is a sensitive indicator of muscle injury and is first to rise following MI within two hours but is nonspecific.Troponin and CK-MB both begin to rise approximately three hours after MI. The cardiac troponins T and I which are released within 4–6 hours of an attack of MI and remain elevated for up to 2 weeks, have nearly complete tissue specificity and are now the preferred markers for assessing myocardial damage.Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) begins to rise approximately 12 hours after MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The largest energy reserves among both lean and obese subjects are from
Your Answer: Carbohydrates
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:The energy required for sustained exercise is provided by the oxidation of two fuels, glucose stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle, and long-chain fatty acids, stored as adipose tissue triglycerides. The latter provides the largest energy reserve in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Adrenergic stimulation will lead to myocyte relaxation via the following mechanisms
Your Answer: Dephosphorylation of troponin l
Correct Answer: Increased phosphorylation of phosholamban
Explanation:Phosphorylation of phospholamban, which increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the SR, that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to a muscle is mediated by which sensory organ?
Your Answer: Golgi tendon organ
Explanation:Both the muscle spindle and Golgi tendon body are proprioceptors. The Golgi tendon reflex is a normal component of the reflex arc of the peripheral nervous system. In a Golgi tendon reflex, skeletal muscle contraction causes the antagonist muscle to simultaneously lengthen and relax. This reflex is also called the inverse myotatic reflex, because it is the inverse of the stretch reflex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 10
Correct
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The Sinoatrial node in the majority of people is supplied by the?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:In 60% of people, the SA node is supplied by the right coronary artery branch and in 40% of the people by the left coronary artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?
Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Explanation:Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme
Your Answer: Protein Kinase C
Correct Answer: Adenylate cyclase
Explanation:Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by adenylate cyclase located on the inner side of the plasma membrane and anchored at various locations in the interior of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Intermediate filaments achieve cell to cell contact via:
Your Answer: Desmosomes
Correct Answer: Hemidesmosomes
Explanation:At the plasma membrane, some keratins interact with desmosomes (cell-cell adhesion) and hemidesmosomes (cell-matrix adhesion) via adapter proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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During the gastric phase, the acid secretion process is stimulated in the G cells by?
Your Answer: Vagal stimulation and distention of the stomach wall
Correct Answer: Vagal stimulation, distention of the stomach wall, oligopeptides in the stomach
Explanation:Before the meal enters into the stomach, the amount of secretion is limited. Swallowing of a food bolus triggers the release of gastrin. Once in the stomach, the meal physically distends the stomach activating the stretch receptors and initiating the vago vagal reflex amplifying the secretion during the gastric phase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.
Your Answer: Stem cells
Correct Answer: Germ cells
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In both innate and humoral immunity, receptors involved recognize:
Your Answer: The shape and the size of the antigen
Correct Answer: The shape of the antigen
Explanation:Antigen receptors recognize the shape of the antigen. They identify specific epitopes and are found on T cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The end product of trehalase action on oligosaccharides is
Your Answer: A molecule of glucose and a molecule of fructose
Correct Answer: Two glucose molecules
Explanation:Disaccharides are glycoside hydrolases, enzymes that break down certain types of sugars called disaccharides into simpler sugars called monosaccharides.Examples of disaccharides:Lactase (breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose)Maltase (breaks down maltose into 2 glucoses)Sucrase (breaks down sucrose into glucose and fructose)Trehalase (breaks down trehalose into 2 glucoses)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by?
Your Answer: Loose connective tissue
Explanation:The oesophagus has four layers namely; 1. the mucosal layer, 2. the submucosal layer, 3. the muscular layer and 4. the layer of loose connective tissue which binds to the outer mucosal layer. The oesophagus lacks the serosal layer and therefore holds sutures poorly. The mucosal layer consists of muscularis mucosa and the lamina propria and is made up of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. The mucosal layer is the innermost layer of the oesophagus. The submucosal layer being the strongest layer of all has mucous glands which are called as the tuboalveolar mucous glands. The outer muscular layer has two types of muscle layers of which one is the circular layer and the other the longitudinal layer. The Auerbach’s and Meissner’s nerve plexuses lie in between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers and submucosally. The muscle fibres present in the upper 1/3rd part of the oesophagus are skeletal muscle fibres, the middle 1/3rd layer has both smooth and skeletal muscle fibres, but the lower 1/3rd only has smooth muscle fibres. The loose connective tissue layer or the adventitious layer has dense fibrous tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time
Your Answer: Prevalence
Correct Answer: Sero-Prevalence
Explanation:n immunology, seroconversion is the time period during which a specific antibody develops and becomes detectable in the blood. After seroconversion has occurred, the disease can be detected in blood tests for the antibody. Sero-prevalence includes Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Lymphoid stem cells give rise to the following cells.
Your Answer: T cells, b cells and neutrophils
Correct Answer: T cells, b cells and natural killer cells
Explanation:T Cells, B Cells and NK Cells (and all other Innate lymphoid cells) are unique to the lymphocyte family, but dendritic cells are not. Dendritic cells of identical appearance but different markers are spread throughout the body, and come from either lymphoid and myeloid lineages
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate?
Your Answer: Yeast
Correct Answer: Green leafy vegetables
Explanation:Folate naturally occurs in a wide variety of foods, including vegetables (particularly dark green leafy vegetables), fruits and fruit juices, nuts, beans, peas, dairy products, poultry and meat, eggs, seafood, grains, and some beers. Avocado, beetroot, spinach, liver, yeast, asparagus, and Brussels sprouts are among the foods with the highest levels of folate
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding platelets?
Your Answer: They are derived from proerythroblasts
Correct Answer: Normally have a half-life of about 8 days
Explanation:Platelets have no cell nucleus: they are fragments of cytoplasm that are derived from the megakaryocytes of the bone marrow, and then enter the circulation. They have a half life of 5-9 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Glucose absorption in the small intestine is coupled with which of the following electrolytes?
Your Answer: K
Correct Answer: Na
Explanation:Sodium-glucose linked transporter are family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and absorbs glucose via cotransport of Na+ ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual reflexes.
Your Answer: Cerebellum
Correct Answer: Superior colliculus
Explanation:The tectum is a part of the midbrain, specifically, the dorsal part of the midbrain. The tectum consists of the superior and inferior colliculi. The superior colliculus is involved in preliminary visual processing and control of eye movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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In the basal ganglia, the Lentiform nucleus is formed by which two nuclei?
Your Answer: Caudate and Globus pallidus
Correct Answer: Putamen and Globus pallidus
Explanation:The Basal Ganglia are composed of the following structures: Caudate, putamen, Globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus and substantia nigra. The lentiform nucleus comprises of the putamen and the Globus pallidus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Nitric oxide triggers vascular smooth muscle contraction through activation of which enzyme?
Your Answer: Adenylate cyclase
Correct Answer: Guanylyl cyclase
Explanation:Impaired production or excess catabolism of NO impairs this endothelium-dependent vasodilator function and may contribute to excessive vasoconstriction under various pathological situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The celiac trunk consists of which arteries?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric
Correct Answer: Left gastric, common hepatic, splenic
Explanation:The celiac trunk is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta. It is 1.25 cm in length. Branching from the aorta at thoracic vertebra 12 (T12). There are three main divisions of the celiac artery:- left gastric artery- common hepatic artery- splenic artery
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 23-year-old student presents with a fever and sore throat. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he had bilaterally enlarged tonsils that are covered in large amounts of exudate. A diagnosis of tonsillitis was made. The lymph from the tonsils will drain to which of the following nodes?
Your Answer: Deep cervical lymph nodes
Explanation:The tonsils are collections of lymphatic tissue located within the pharynx. They collectively form a ringed arrangement, known as Waldeyer’s ring: pharyngeal tonsil, 2 tubal tonsils, 2 palatine tonsils, and the lingual tonsil. Lymphatic fluid from the lingual tonsil drains into the jugulodigastric and deep cervical lymph nodes. Lymphatic fluid from the pharyngeal tonsil drains into the retropharyngeal nodes (which empty into the deep cervical chain), and directly into deep cervical nodes within the parapharyngeal space. The retropharyngeal and the deep cervical lymph nodes drain the tubal tonsils. The palatine tonsils drain to the jugulodigastric node, a node of the deep cervical lymph nodes, located inferior to the angle of the mandible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27 year old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is healthy and has no past medical history. Blood pressure and bloods are all within normal parameters however the ECG confirms a narrow complex tachycardia. The tachycardia persists after giving IV adenosine 3mg and then 6mg. What should be the next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: IV verapamil
Correct Answer: IV 12mg adenosine
Explanation:For narrow complex tachycardias with no compromise then vagal manoeuvres should be trialled first. The Valsalva manoeuvre should be the first vagal manoeuvre tried and works by increasing intra-thoracic pressure and affecting baroreceptors (pressure sensors) within the arch of the aorta. It is carried out by asking the patient to hold his/her breath while trying to exhale forcibly as if straining during a bowel movement. Adenosine, an ultra-short-acting AV nodal blocking agent, is indicated if vagal manoeuvres are not effective. Adenosine may be safely used during pregnancy. After giving 3mg of adenosine with no effect, 6mg should be tried. If this fails then 12mg should be trialled. If adenosine fails then Verapamil or a beta blocker can be used as alternatives. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable or other treatments have not been effective, synchronized electrical cardioversion may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?
Your Answer: Increased end-diastolic volume
Correct Answer: Increased length of filling time during diastole
Explanation:Prolonged aerobic exercise training may also increase stroke volume, which frequently results in a lower (resting) heart rate. Reduced heart rate prolongs ventricular diastole (filling), increasing end-diastolic volume, and ultimately allowing more blood to be ejected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
