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  • Question 1 - An 11-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room due to fever and...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room due to fever and pain in the ears. Upon physical examination, it was observed that the mastoid area is erythematous and there is a presence of a boggy, tender mass. A diagnosis of acute mastoiditis was made.

      Which of the following parts of the temporal bone is most likely involved?

      Your Answer: Styloid process

      Correct Answer: Petrous part

      Explanation:

      Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a portion of the temporal bone referred to as the mastoid air cells. The mastoid air cells are epithelium lined bone septations that are continuous with the middle ear cavity.

      The temporal bone is composed of four parts: the mastoid process, the petrous pyramid, the squamous, and tympanic portions. The mastoid process and the petrous pyramid are the portions of particular interest because of the prevalence of suppurations within these parts of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is NOT an effect of cytokine activity: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT an effect of cytokine activity:

      Your Answer: Opsonisation of bacteria for phagocytosis

      Explanation:

      Cytokines are a family of chemical messengers, secreted by leucocytes, that act over short distances by binding specific receptors on target cell surfaces. They include: interleukins (act between leucocytes), interferons (inhibit replication of viruses within cells and activate macrophages and natural killer cells), growth factors, and tumour necrosis factors (kill tumour cells). Effects include: induction of fever and acute phase response, stimulation of leucocyte differentiation and maturation, leucocyte recruitment and activation and increased antibody production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant DNA technology:

      Your Answer: Influenza

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B vaccines are prepared from the viral surface antigen. The recombinant vaccine is now the most widely used vaccine and induces a sufficient antibody response in 90% of individuals.
      Indications for hepatitis B vaccination include:
      All health care professional’s
      Other professions with occupational risks (foster carers, staff of custodial institutions, morticians etc)
      Babies of mothers with hepatitis B during pregnancy
      Close family contacts of a case or carrier
      IV drug abusers
      Individuals with haemophilia
      Individuals with chronic renal failure
      Sex workers and individuals with frequently changing sexual partners
      The vaccine should be stored between 2 and 8 degrees C as freezing destroys its efficacy. The vaccine is administered intramuscularly, either into the deltoid region (preferred) or anterolateral thigh. The buttock should be avoided as it reduces the efficacy of the vaccine.
      The standard regime is to give 3 doses of the vaccine, the 1stand 2ndone month apart and the 2ndand 3rdsix months apart. Antibody titres should be tested 2 to 4 months after the primary course.
      A peak titre above 100 mIU/ml is regarded as a good response and implies long-term immunity. A peak titre between 10-100 mIU/ml is regarded as a low response and a peak titre of less than 10mIU/ml is regarded as a poor response.
      There is no substantiated association between hepatitis B vaccination and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - For which of the following is micelle formation necessary to facilitate intestinal absorption?...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following is micelle formation necessary to facilitate intestinal absorption?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The arrangement of micelles is such that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by hydrophilic bile acids that are arranged in the outer region. This arrangement allows the entry of micelles into the aqueous layers surrounding the microvilli. As a result, the products of fat digestion (fatty acids and monoglycerides), cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamin D) can then diffuse passively into the enterocytes. The bile salts are left within the lumen of the gut where they are reabsorbed from the ileum or excreted in faeces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: A cricothyroidotomy is suitable for airway obstruction superior to the vocal folds.

      Correct Answer: A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the neck inferior to the cricoid cartilage.

      Explanation:

      A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the median cricothyroid ligament (the medial part of the cricothyroid membrane), between the cricoid cartilage below and the thyroid cartilage above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic acidosis.

      What is the most likely cause of her lactic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Cyanide poisoning

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is a common finding in critically ill patients and commonly associated with other serious underlying pathologies. It occurs when pH is <7.35 and lactate is >5 mmol/L. Anion gap is increased in lactic acidosis.

      Acquired lactic acidosis is classified into two subtypes:
      Type A: lactic acidosis due to tissue hypoxia and
      Type B: due to non-hypoxic processes affecting the production and elimination of lactate

      Some causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:
      Type A lactic acidosis
      Left ventricular failure
      Severe anaemia
      Shock (including septic shock)
      Asphyxia
      Cardiac arrest
      CO poisoning
      Respiratory failure
      Severe asthma and COPD

      Type B lactic acidosis:
      Regional hypoperfusion
      Renal failure
      Liver failure
      Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
      Thiamine deficiency
      Alcoholic ketoacidosis
      Diabetic ketoacidosis
      Cyanide poisoning
      Methanol poisoning
      Biguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding Gaussian sample distribution, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Gaussian sample distribution, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: It can be skewed left or right

      Explanation:

      Gaussian distribution, also known as normal distribution, is the most important probability distribution in statistics because it fits many natural phenomena. The normal distribution is a probability function that describes how the values of a variable are distributed. Below are its characteristics:

      (1) Bell-shaped and symmetrical about the mean
      (2) The mean, median, mode are all equal
      (3) The total area under the curve and above the x-axis is equal to 1
      (4) It has long tapering tails extending infinitely but never touching the x-axis
      (5) It is determined by its parameters: its mean and standard deviation
      (6) The standard deviation becomes a more meaningful quality than merely being a measure of dispersion

      The mean is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation, and is also known as the ‘average’.

      The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers.

      The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is commonly used in public health statistics, such as the top 10 causes of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      170.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology team recently discharged him. He underwent a procedure and was given several medications, including abciximab, during his stay. Which of the following statements about abciximab is correct?

      Your Answer: The platelet count should be checked 2-4 hours after starting treatment

      Correct Answer: It is a glycoprotein IIa/IIIb receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      It’s approved for use as a supplement to heparin and aspirin in high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention to prevent ischaemic complications. Only one dose of abciximab should be given (to avoid additional risk of thrombocytopenia).

      Before using, it is recommended that baseline prothrombin time, activated clotting time, activated partial thromboplastin time, platelet count, haemoglobin, and haematocrit be measured. 12 and 24 hours after starting treatment, haemoglobin and haematocrit should be measured again, as should platelet count 2-4 hours and 24 hours after starting treatment.
      When used for high-risk patients undergoing angioplasty, the EPIC trial(link is external)found that abciximab reduced the risk of death, myocardial infarction, repeat angioplasty, bypass surgery, and balloon pump insertion.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

      The following are some of the most common abciximab side effects:
      Manifestations of bleeding
      Bradycardia
      Back ache
      Pain in the chest
      Vomiting and nausea
      Pain at the puncture site
      Thrombocytopenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for the past month. His past medical history reveals a history of cancer. After examination, you diagnose Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC).

      Which one of the following cancers is this patient most likely to have had?

      Your Answer: Testicular cancer

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Compression of the thecal sac causes metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC) due to a Metastatic tumour and its components. It can cause symptoms of limb weakness, sensory disturbances and back pain depending on the extent and level of Compression.

      The most common source of a tumour causing MSCC is a prostate carcinoma that metastasized to the spinal cord via the vertebral venous plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Elevation of the mandible is produced primarily by which of the following muscles:...

    Incorrect

    • Elevation of the mandible is produced primarily by which of the following muscles:

      Your Answer: Temporalis, geniohyoid and mylohyoid

      Correct Answer: Temporalis, masseter and medial pterygoid

      Explanation:

      Elevation of the mandible is generated by the temporalis, masseter and medial pterygoid muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      423.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Both the medial and lateral pterygoids are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      216.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she had done for non-specific malaise, lethargy, and weight loss.

      The only abnormality discovered during the blood tests was a 580 x 10 9 /l increase in platelets. Her platelets were also elevated on a blood test taken 6 months earlier, according to her previous results. You're aware of the recent emergence of elevated platelet levels as a cancer risk marker and decide to look into it.

      Which of the following cancers is most likely to cause isolated thrombocytosis?

      Your Answer: Melanoma skin cancer

      Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Raised platelet levels have emerged as a cancer risk marker, according to a large population-based study published in 2017(link is external). According to the study, 12 percent of men and 6% of women with thrombocytosis were diagnosed with cancer within a year. These figures increased to 18% in men and 10% in women if a second platelet count was taken within 6 months of the first and showed an increased or stable elevated platelet count.

      The researchers discovered that thrombocytosis linked to cancer is most common in colorectal and lung cancers, and it is linked to a worse prognosis. Furthermore, one-third of the cancer patients in the study had no other symptoms that would have prompted an immediate cancer referral.

      The exact mechanism by which these cancers cause thrombocytosis is unknown, but one theory proposes the existence of pathogenic feedback loops between malignant cells and platelets, with a reciprocal interaction between tumour growth and metastasis, as well as thrombocytosis and platelet activation. Another hypothesis is that thrombocytosis occurs independently of cancer but aids in its spread and progression.

      The findings show that routinely testing for thrombocytosis could cut the time it takes to diagnose colorectal and lung cancer by at least two months. In the UK, this could result in around 5500 earlier cancer diagnoses per year.

      Because the positive predictive value of thrombocytosis in middle age for cancer (10%) is higher than the positive predictive value for a woman in her 50s presenting with a new breast lump (8.5%), this is clearly an important research paper that should be used to adjust future clinical practise. The current NICE guidelines predate these new research findings, so we’ll have to wait and see how they affect cancer referral guidelines in the UK.

      Because there are so many possible cancers associated with thrombocytosis, the treating clinician should take a thorough history and perform a thorough clinical examination if a patient is diagnosed with it. Further investigation and the most appropriate referral route should be aided by this information.

      It’s worth noting that the patients in the study had their blood tests done for a medical reason rather than as a random screening test.

      If there are no other symptoms to guide investigation and referral (one-third of the patients in the study had no other symptoms), keep in mind that the two most common cancers encountered were colorectal and lung cancer, so a chest X-ray and a faecal immunochemical test (FIT) for faecal blood may be reasonable initial investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      428.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You examine a 73-year-old patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 73-year-old patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart failure. Bumetanide was recently prescribed for him.

      Which of the following statements about bumetanide is correct?

      Your Answer: It has a tendency to trigger seizures

      Correct Answer: It has better intestinal absorption than furosemide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium, chloride, and potassium reabsorption by acting on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporter in the ascending loop of Henlé. This reduces the osmotic gradient that forces water out of the collecting duct system and prevents the formation of a hypertonic renal medulla. This has a strong diuretic effect on the body.

      It’s primarily used in patients with heart failure who aren’t responding to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency.

      In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. Bumetanide is 40 times more potent than furosemide, and one milligram is roughly equivalent to 40 milligrams of furosemide.

      Bumetanide also lowers the concentration of neuronal chloride, making GABA’s action more depolarizing. In the neonatal period, it is being studied as an antiepileptic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      89.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The correct statement regarding the parasympathetic nervous system is which of the following?...

    Incorrect

    • The correct statement regarding the parasympathetic nervous system is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Parasympathetic postganglionic neurones release noradrenaline which acts on adrenergic receptors.

      Correct Answer: Parasympathetic preganglionic neurones run in cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X.

      Explanation:

      The electron transfer system is responsible for most of the energy produced during respiration. The is a system of hydrogen carriers located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Hydrogen is transferred to the electron transfer system via the NADH2 molecules produced during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. As a result, a H+ion gradient is generated across the inner membrane which drives ATP synthase. The final hydrogen acceptor is oxygen and the H+ions and O2 combine to form water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 2nd-year medical student is solving an exam paper with questions about the...

    Incorrect

    • A 2nd-year medical student is solving an exam paper with questions about the immune system. She comes across a question regarding innate immunity. Innate immunity is the immunity naturally present within the body from birth.

      Which ONE of the following is not a part of this type of immunity?

      Your Answer: The skin

      Correct Answer: Antibody production

      Explanation:

      Innate immunity, also called non-specific immunity, refers to the components of the immune system naturally present in the body at birth.

      The components of innate immunity include:
      1) Natural Killer Cells
      2) Neutrophils
      3) Macrophages
      4) Mast Cells
      5) Dendritic Cells
      6) Basophils.

      Acquired or adaptive immunity is acquired in response to infection or vaccination. Although the response takes longer to develop, it is also a more long-lasting form of immunity.

      The components of this system include:
      1) T lymphocytes
      2) B lymphocytes
      3) Antibodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements regarding forest plots is true? Select ONE answer...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding forest plots is true? Select ONE answer only.
      Which of the following statements regarding forest plots is true? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: The length of the horizontal lines emerging from the squares represents the standard deviation

      Correct Answer: Larger studies are associated with smaller horizontal lines

      Explanation:

      Forest plots are graphical displays designed to illustrate the relative strength of treatment effects in multiple individual studies addressing the same question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine....

    Incorrect

    • Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine. Most digestive enzymes in the small intestine are secreted by the pancreas and enter the small intestine through the pancreatic duct.

      Which of these digestive enzymes is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into monosaccharides?

      Your Answer: Trypsin

      Correct Answer: Glucoamylase

      Explanation:

      Majority of carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides (glucose, fructose galactose) and are absorbed by the small intestine. Enzymes released from the brush border break down carbohydrate. Some carbohydrates, such as cellulose, are not digested at all, despite being made of multiple glucose units. This is because the cellulose is made out of beta-glucose that makes the inter-monosaccharide bindings different from the ones present in starch, which consists of alpha-glucose. Humans lack the enzyme for splitting the beta-glucose-bond.

      The principal brush border enzymes are dextranase and glucoamylase. Other brush border enzymes are maltase, sucrase, and lactase.

      Pancreatic amylase breaks down some carbohydrates (notably starch) into oligosaccharides. Dextranase and glucoamylase, then further break down oligosaccharides.

      Trypsin aids in digestion of protein.

      Chymotrypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that digests protein

      Carboxypeptidase hydrolyses the first peptide or amide bond at the carboxyl or C-terminal end of proteins and peptides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 22 year old student has recently returned from travelling around Kenya and...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old student has recently returned from travelling around Kenya and presents to ED with a headache and persistent fever. Malaria is being considered as a potential diagnosis. Which of the following strains of malaria is most likely:

      Your Answer: Plasmodium vivax

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Malaria is an infectious disease transmitted by female of theAnophelesgenus of mosquito. It is a parasitic infection caused by the genusPlasmodium. Five species are recognized as causing disease in humans;Plasmodium falciparum,Plasmodium ovale,Plasmodium vivax,Plasmodium malariaeandPlasmodium knowlesi.
      The classic symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, a cyclical occurrence of a cold phase, where the patient experiences intense chills, a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot and finally a sweating stage, where the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely. On examination the patient may show signs of anaemia, jaundice and have hepatosplenomegaly without evidence of lymphadenopathy.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious form and is responsible for most deaths. Severe or complicated malaria is suggested by the presence of impaired consciousness, seizures, hypoglycaemia, anaemia, renal impairment, respiratory distress and spontaneous bleeding.
      Plasmodium falciparum is the most likely type in this case in view of the presentation.
      Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of blackwater fever, which is caused byPlasmodium falciparum. An autoimmune reaction between the parasite and quinine causes haemolysis, haemoglobinuria, jaundice and renal failure. This can be fatal.
      The benign malarias: P.vivax, P. malariae and P.ovale are usually treated with chloroquine. A course of primaquine is also required in P.vivax and P.ovale infection. Artesunate is the drug treatment of choice for Plasmodium falciparum malaria. Quinine can still be used where artesunate is not available. Often combination therapy with drugs such as doxycycline or fansidar is also required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Eosinophils comprise what percentage of circulating white cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Eosinophils comprise what percentage of circulating white cells:

      Your Answer: 0.05

      Correct Answer: 1 - 3%

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils comprise 1 – 3% of circulating white cells. Eosinophils are similar to neutrophils, except that the cytoplasmic granules are coarser and more deeply red staining, and there are rarely more than three nuclear lobes. They are less motile, but longer lived. They enter inflammatory exudates and have a special role in allergic responses, defence against parasites and removal of fibrin formed during inflammation. Thus they play a role in local immunity and tissue repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The majority of NHL are of T-cell origin.

      Correct Answer: There is a much greater predilection to disseminate to extranodal sites than in Hodgkin lymphoma.

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) refers to a group of lymphoproliferative malignancies (about 85% of B-cell and 15% of T or NK (natural killer) cell origin) with different behavioural patterns and treatment responses. This group of malignancies encompasses all types of lymphoma without Reed-Sternberg cells being present. The Reed-Sternberg cell is classically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
      NHL is five times as common as Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The peak incidence of NHL is in the 50-70 years age group, it affects men and women equally, but affects the Caucasian population more commonly than black and Asian ethnic groups.
      The following are recognised risk factors for NHL:
      Chromosomal translocations and molecular rearrangements
      Epstein-Barr virus infection
      Human T-cell leukaemia virus type-1 (HTLV-1)
      Hepatitis C
      Congenital and acquired immunodeficiency states
      Autoimmune disorders, e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
      The most common clinical features at presentation are:
      Lymphadenopathy (typically asymmetrical and painless)
      Weight loss
      Fatigue
      Night sweats
      Hepatosplenomegaly
      For clinical purposes, NHL is divided into three groups: indolent, high-grade, and lymphoblastic.
      Indolent (low-grade) NHL:
      The cells are relatively mature
      Disease follows an indolent course without treatment
      Often acceptable to follow a ‘watch and wait’ strategy
      Local radiotherapy often effective
      Relatively good prognosis with median survival of 10 years
      High-grade NHL:
      Cells are immature
      Disease progresses rapidly without treatment
      Significant number of patients can be cured with intensive combination chemotherapy regimens
      Approximately 40% cure rate
      Lymphoblastic NHL:
      Cells are very immature and have a propensity to involve the CNS
      Treatment and progression are similar to that of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen:

      Your Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV mainly infects CD4+ T helper cells. Viral replication results in progressive T-cell depletion and impaired cell-mediated immunity with subsequent secondary opportunistic infections and increased risk of malignancy. B-cell function is also reduced as a result of lack of T-cell stimulation.
      HIV is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      99.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding the brachioradialis muscle, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the brachioradialis muscle, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It receives its blood supply from the brachial artery

      Correct Answer: It assists with supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joints

      Explanation:

      Brachioradialis is a fusiform muscle located in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Along with extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus, it comprises the radial group of forearm muscles, which belong to the superficial layer of posterior forearm muscles. Although anatomically part of the posterior forearm muscles, which are known to be forearm extensors, brachioradialis’ fibre orientation enables it to rather flex the forearm, and aids in supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joint.

      The brachioradialis muscle originates from the upper two-thirds of the lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus and the anterior surface of the lateral intermuscular septum of the arm. It slides over the lateral surface of the elbow joint, entering the anterolateral cubital area. The muscle fibres course inferiorly down the radial part of the anterior forearm, forming a thick tendon in approximately the middle of the forearm. This tendon then traverses the remainder of the forearm, inserting near the wrist, just proximal to the styloid process of radius.

      Brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve (from the root values C5-C6) that stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Blood supply to the brachioradialis muscle comes from branches of the radial artery, radial recurrent artery and the radial collateral branch of the deep brachial artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is...

    Correct

    • Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Transfer of oxygen is usually perfusion-limited.

      Explanation:

      Gas exchange between alveolar air and blood in the pulmonary capillaries takes place by diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Diffusion occurs from an area of high partial pressure to an area of low partial pressure, thus the driving force for diffusion is the alveolar-capillary partial pressure gradient. Diffusion occurs until equilibrium is reached, but random movement of particles continues to occur and this is known as dynamic equilibrium. The diffusing capacity for oxygen (DLO2) cannot be measured directly but the rate of diffusion in the lungs can be estimated by measuring the diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO), not by measuring total lung capacity. The rate of transfer of a gas may be diffusion or perfusion limited; carbon monoxide transfer is diffusion-limited, oxygen transfer is usually perfusion-limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient has suffered a nerve injury that has caused weakness of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has suffered a nerve injury that has caused weakness of the pectoralis minor muscle.
      Pectoralis minor receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Medial pectoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Pectoralis minor is a thin, triangular muscle that is situated in the upper chest. It is thinner and smaller than pectoralis major. It is innervated by the medial pectoral nerve.
      The origin of pectoralis minor is the 3rdto the 5thribs, near the costal cartilages. It inserts into the medial border and superior surface of the coracoid process of the scapula.
      The main action of pectoralis minor is to draw the scapula inferiorly and anteriorly against the thoracic wall. This serves to stabilise the scapula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You review an 18-months-old child who seems to be having a reaction following...

    Correct

    • You review an 18-months-old child who seems to be having a reaction following an immunisation she took earlier in the day.

      Which statement concerning immunity and vaccination is true?

      Your Answer: The strongest immunological response is seen with natural immunity

      Explanation:

      Vaccination induces ACTIVE adaptive immunity. Actively acquired immunity involves the development of an immune response either due to vaccination or natural exposure to a pathogen and leads to long-lasting resistance to infection.

      Immediate protection is achieved with injection of immunoglobulin. The protection is transient lasting only a few weeks and is useful as post-exposure prophylaxis.

      Passively acquired immunity usually leads to short-lasting resistance to infection because it does not involve a host immune response.

      With inactivated bacteria, a series of primary vaccinations is usually required to induce an adequate immune response. In most cases, boosters are required to sustain adequate immunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - After collapsing in his nursing home, a 70-year-old man is brought into the...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing in his nursing home, a 70-year-old man is brought into the ER. He is a known case of diabetes mellitus and is on medication for it. An RBS of 2.5 mmol/L (3.9-5.5 mmol/L) is recorded in the ER.

      Out of the following, which medication for diabetes mellitus is MOST likely responsible for his hypoglycaemic episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Pioglitazone is used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It selectively stimulates the nuclear receptor peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-γ) and to a lesser extent PPAR-α.

      Of the medications mentioned in this question, only pioglitazone is a recognized cause of hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chylomicrons consist of a cholesterol and triglyceride core with a phospholipid coat studded with apolipoproteins.

      Explanation:

      Dietary fat is chiefly composed of triglycerides. In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Once inside the epithelial cell, lipid is taken into the smooth endoplasmic reticulum where much of it is re esterified. Dietary and synthesised lipids are then incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals. Chylomicrons consist mainly of triglyceride with small amounts of cholesterol and cholesteryl esters in the centre with a phospholipid coat studded with apolipoproteins. Fat-soluble are absorbed into enterocytes from micelles by simple diffusion together with the products of fat digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding infective diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure

      Explanation:

      E. coli may cause several different gastrointestinal syndromes. Based on virulence factors, clinical manifestation, epidemiology, and different O and H serotypes, there are five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli, enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), and enteroadherent, which includes diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) and enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC). These five categories are sometimes
      collectively referred to as enterovirulent E. coli or diarrheagenic E. coli.

      Norwalk virus is part of the Caliciviridae family of viruses which are single-stranded RNA viruses and are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the US.

      Rotaviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis
      in infants and children. With the introduction in 2006 of a human-bovine rotavirus vaccine (RV5; RotaTeq, Merck), a delay in the onset of rotavirus
      season was seen. RotaTeq is a series of three oral vaccines beginning at 6 to 12 weeks of age. A second vaccine, Rotarix (RV1; GlaxoSmithKline, Middlesex, England), was approved in June 2008.

      Cryptosporidium causes an illness characterized by abdominal cramping, watery diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia. This organism is resistant to chlorine, so public swimming pools can be the source of an outbreak.

      G. lamblia has a worldwide distribution and has frequently been identified as the causative agent of outbreaks of gastroenteritis and traveller’s diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects include:
      Antimuscarinic effects: Dry mouth, Blurred vision, Constipation, Urinary retention, Sedation, Confusion
      Cardiovascular effects: Heart block, Arrhythmias, Tachycardia, Postural hypotension, QT-interval prolongation, Hepatic impairment, Narrow-angle glaucoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations. Her serum potassium levels are measured and come back at 6.2 mmol/L. An ECG is performed, and it shows some changes that are consistent with hyperkalaemia.
      Which of the following ECG changes is usually the earliest sign of hyperkalaemia? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:
      K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalities
      K+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappear
      K+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)
      K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/5) 20%
Head And Neck (0/3) 0%
Inflammatory Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (4/6) 67%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
Physiology (3/7) 43%
Renal Physiology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
General Pathology (3/3) 100%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (3/3) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Principles (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Passmed