00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 10-month-old infant is brought to the hospital with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old infant is brought to the hospital with a 3-day history of frequent watery stools and vomiting. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and is refusing to drink in the emergency department.What would be the most appropriate course of action for this child?

      Your Answer: Observe for 4 h in the Emergency Department| if she tolerates oral fluids, discharge her| if not admit for intravenous rehydration

      Correct Answer: Admit for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate step in this patient would be to admit the patient for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube.Enteral rehydration:Oral rehydration is the most preferred way of rehydrating children. If a child is not tolerating small-frequent-feeds, then nasogastric rehydration is an underused next best step. The fluid can be run through a continuous pump so that it is better tolerated. Note:Intravenous fluids are effective but can have profound effects on the serum electrolyte balance if not monitored closely. Most children will tolerate fluids in an emergency department, but failure to take fluids orally is not an indication for intravenous therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic kidneys

      Correct Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Scoliosis

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis (aka Von Recklinghausen’s disease) includes: neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma, optic nerve tumours, scoliosis and acoustic neuromas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9 months. On examination, both parotid glands are firm and non-tender and are not warm to touch.What is the most probable infectious cause for chronic parotitis in the given scenario?

      Your Answer: Mumps virus

      Correct Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for chronic parotitis in this patient would be HIV infection.Rationale:Chronic infectious parotitis is relatively uncommon in children. While mycobacterial infection can result in chronic parotitis, HIV is a relatively more common cause. The presentation should always prompt an HIV test. Other options:- While mumps is the most common cause of acute viral parotitis, the chronic nature of the boy’s presentation rules it out. – Acute bacterial parotitis is usually unilateral and is warm and tender to touch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

      Your Answer: Prematurity

      Correct Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip refers to patients who are born with a dislocated or unstable hip due to abnormal development of the hip. Female infants and first born infants are most likely to present with DDH. Other risk factors for DDH include, breech positioning, oligohydramnios, high birth weight or post date babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child whose head circumference is on the 3rd centile? Note that his height and weight are in the 75th centile.

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Correct Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child is congenital rubella syndrome.Microcephaly is defined as head circumference > two standard deviations below the mean.The causes of microcephaly include:- Genetic disorders: Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, Williams syndrome, Angelman syndrome, and Rett syndrome.- Infective: Meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, rubella, varicella, HIVand Zika.- Acquired causes: Severe brain malformations, neurodegenerative diseases, hypoxic-ischemic injury, infarction, antenatal exposure to drugs, alcohol, and other toxins. Severe malnutrition and uncontrolled phenylketonuria in the mother are other causes of microcephaly in children.- Craniosynostosis- Neurometabolic disorders- Early non-accidental trauma- Fanconi anaemia- Other causes include: Familial and nonfamilial nonsyndromic microcephalyMost children with microcephaly have one or several associated symptoms:- Developmental delay- Seizures- Visual abnormalities- Short stature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer a cube from her left to her right hand. She gains much excitement when placed in a forward or downward parachute position. In contrast to her last visit, she no longer has a rooting, grasp, or startle reflex. Her symmetrical Moro reflex has also disappeared. The infant continuously presents items to her mouth and sucks her fingers. She has a positive Babinski sign but a negative asymmetrical tonic neck reflex.What is the developmental age of the child in question?

      Your Answer: 18 months

      Correct Answer: 8 months

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the developmental age of the child is 8 months.The primitive reflexes are indicators of functional integrity and maturity. The majority of reflexes do not persist beyond 6 months of age. There are 13 reflexes of importance, including:- Moro reflex- Startle reflex- Rooting reflex- Sucking reflex- Grasp reflex- Voluntary palmar grasp reflex- Voluntary reach reflex- Stepping reflex- Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)- Parachute reflex- Plantar reflex- Tendon reflex- ClonusIt is interesting to note that gastrocolic reflex is not a primitive reflex.Ninety-five per cent of reflexes will have disappeared by the ages shown below:- 6 weeks: Stepping- 3-4 months: Palmar grasp and Moro- 6 months: Sucking, rooting, and asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a...

    Incorrect

    • According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a group of children that have a sibling with severe eczema, have asthma. On the other hand, only 0.5% without a sibling with severe eczema have asthma. You want to test the difference of 9.5% for significance. Which of the following tests would you use?

      Your Answer: Number needed to treat

      Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test

      Explanation:

      To quantify differences between percentages you can use Fisher’s exact test.Odds ratios, relative risks and number needed to treat are ways of quantifying differences between percentages in two groups, however are not in themselves significance tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Skull fracture

      Correct Answer: Foreign body

      Explanation:

      Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart...

    Correct

    • A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart rate but is in respiratory distress. Which of the following syndromes is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Werdnig–Hoffman disease (spinomuscular atrophy type 1)

      Explanation:

      The spinal muscular atrophies (SMAs) comprise a group of autosomal recessive disorders characterized by progressive weakness of the lower motor neurons. several types of spinal muscular atrophies have been described based on age when accompanying clinical features appear. The most common types are acute infantile (SMA type I, or Werdnig-Hoffman disease), chronic infantile (SMA type II), chronic juvenile (SMA type III or Kugelberg-Welander disease), and adult-onset (SMA type IV) forms.SMA type I – Acute infantile or Werdnig-Hoffman diseasePatients present before 6 months of age, with 95% of patients having signs and symptoms by 3 months. They have severe, progressive muscle weakness and flaccid or reduced muscle tone (hypotonia). Bulbar dysfunction includes poor suck ability, reduced swallowing, and respiratory failure. Patients have no involvement of the extraocular muscles, and facial weakness is often minimal or absent. They have no evidence of cerebral involvement, and infants appear alert.Reports of impaired fetal movements are observed in 30% of cases, and 60% of infants with SMA type I are floppy babies at birth. Prolonged cyanosis may be noted at delivery. In some instances, the disease can cause fulminant weakness in the first few days of life. Such severe weakness and early bulbar dysfunction are associated with short life expectancy, with a mean survival of 5.9 months. In 95% of cases, infants die from complications of the disease by 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - All of the following conditions because feeding problems for a neonate except for...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following conditions because feeding problems for a neonate except for which one?

      Your Answer: Cerebral birth trauma

      Correct Answer: Physiological jaundice

      Explanation:

      Physiological jaundice is the condition in which there is a yellow discolouration of the eyes and the skin of the baby caused by the build up of bilirubin in the blood due to an immature liver. No other symptoms accompany physiological jaundice, thus it will not present with difficulty in feeding. All the other conditions listed can present with feeding problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with distended neck veins and a displaced trachea. What is the next appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Chest drainage

      Correct Answer: Needle thoracocenthesis

      Explanation:

      The patient history suggests a spontaneous tension pneumothorax which is a life-threatening situation in which excess air is introduced into the pleural space surrounding the lung. When there is a significant amount of air trapped in the pleural cavity, the increasing pressure from this abnormal air causes the lung to shrink and collapse, leading to respiratory distress. This pressure also pushes the mediastinum (including the heart and great vessels) away from its central position, e.g. deviated trachea, and diminishing the cardiac output. Tension pneumothoraxes cause chest pain, extreme shortness of breath, respiratory failure, hypoxia, tachycardia, and hypotension. These are definitively managed by insertion of a chest tube. However, in the emergency setting temporizing measures are needed while chest tube materials are being gathered. In these situations, urgent needle thoracostomy (also called needle decompression) is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 15-month-old child is due for his measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old child is due for his measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines. He is feverish due to an acute otitis media and the mother gives a family history of egg allergy. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Proceed with standard immunization schedule

      Correct Answer: Defer immunization for two weeks

      Explanation:

      Vaccines should not be given to a feverish child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?

      Your Answer: Progestogen implant

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of the foetus. During her visit, she is informed she is going to have a baby boy. What will be the chromosomal arrangement of the baby?

      Your Answer: 23 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)

      Correct Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)

      Explanation:

      In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea and headaches. He lives on a farm and would usually play hide and seek with his siblings in the barn where the family store pesticides and other chemicals. Lab investigations reveal a significant leukopenia. Aplastic anaemia results due to failure of hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to progenitors of immune cells. In which area of the body are these cells primarily located?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are a rare population of cells residing in the bone marrow (BM) and continuously replenish all mature blood cells throughout their life span.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child’s condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?

      Your Answer: Somogyi effect

      Explanation:

      Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      426.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (2/4) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
HIV (0/1) 0%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Passmed