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  • Question 1 - Normally, the O2 transfer in the lungs from alveolar to capillary is perfusion-limited....

    Correct

    • Normally, the O2 transfer in the lungs from alveolar to capillary is perfusion-limited. In which of the following situations does it become a diffusion-limited process?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Normally, the transfer of oxygen from air spaces to blood takes place across the alveolar-capillary membrane by simple diffusion and depends entirely on the amount of blood flow (perfusion-limited process). Diseases that affect this diffusion will transform the normal process to a diffusion limited process. Thus, the diseases which cause a thickened barrier (such as pulmonary oedema due to increased extravascular lung water or asbestosis) will limit the diffusion of oxygen. Chronic obstructive lung diseases will have little effect on diffusion. Inhaling hyperbaric gas mixtures might overcome the diffusion limitation in patients with mild asbestosis or interstitial oedema, by increasing the driving force. Strenuous (not mild) exercise might also favour diffusion limitation and decrease passage time. Increasing the rate of ventilation will not have this affect but will only maintain a high oxygen gradient from air to blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E...

    Correct

    • A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient under went repair of a lingual artery aneurysm in the floor...

    Incorrect

    • A patient under went repair of a lingual artery aneurysm in the floor of the mouth. During surgical dissection from the inside of the mouth which muscle would you have to pass through to reach the main portion of the lingual artery?

      Your Answer: Anterior belly of the digastric

      Correct Answer: Hyoglossus

      Explanation:

      The lingual artery first runs obliquely upward and medialward to the greater horns of the hyoid bone. It then curves downward and forward, forming a loop which is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, and passing beneath the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle it runs horizontally forward, beneath the hyoglossus, and finally, ascending almost perpendicularly to the tongue, turns forward on its lower surface as far as the tip, to become the deep lingual artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      383.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Correct

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      192.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of...

    Incorrect

    • The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of the neck?

      Your Answer: Digastric triangle

      Correct Answer: Visceral space

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine gland in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is situated at the front and sides of the neck in the visceral space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      97
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity? ...

    Correct

    • What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary functional residual capacity (FRC) is = volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration.

      Obstructive diseases (e.g. emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma) = an increase in FRC due to an increase in lung compliance and air trapping.

      Restrictive diseases (e.g. pulmonary fibrosis) result in stiffer, less compliant lungs and a reduction in FRC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of a patient?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume and vital capacity

      Correct Answer: Tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume

      Explanation:

      Vital capacity = inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume. Thus, inspiratory reserve volume can be calculated if tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume are known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      223.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 46-year old female patient experienced a stroke that affected her glossopharyngeal nerve....

    Correct

    • A 46-year old female patient experienced a stroke that affected her glossopharyngeal nerve. Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve would most likely:

      Your Answer: Result in general sensory deficit to the pharynx

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) has many functions which include:

      – Contributes to the pharyngeal plexus

      – Receiving general somatic sensory fibres from the tonsils, pharynx, the middle ear and the posterior third of the tongue.

      – supplies motor fibres to only one muscle; the stylopharyngeus muscle.

      – provides parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland via the otic ganglion.

      – Receives visceral sensory fibres from the carotid bodies & carotid sinus.

      – Receives special visceral sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue.

      The above functions will directly be affected by the damage of the glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      124.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect: ...

    Correct

    • A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Regulation of circadian rhythm

      Explanation:

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus is responsible for controlling endogenous circadian rhythms and destruction of the SCN leads to a loss of circadian rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Correct Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle

      Explanation:

      The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen,...

    Correct

    • During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen, the operating doctor discovers the large bowel is perforated. Which of the following characteristics of the bowel enabled the surgeon to identify it as the large bowel?

      Your Answer: Epiploic appendages

      Explanation:

      The large intestine doesn’t have a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle. Instead, it has three strips of longitudinal muscle called taenia coli. The large intestine is covered with omental appendages that are fat filled. It is also folded into sacculations called haustrations. Serosa is a general term for the outermost coat or serous layer of a visceral structure that lies in the body cavities of the abdomen or thorax.

      Complete circular folds are only found in the small intestine.

      Valvulae conniventes or valves of Kerckring are the circular folds which are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best...

    Correct

    • The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best described by which of the following terms?

      Your Answer: Diapedesis

      Explanation:

      The steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function are:

      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel

      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls

      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes, interaction of these results in adhesion

      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product

      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      103.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward...

    Incorrect

    • Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?

      Your Answer: Ligament of Treitz

      Correct Answer: Left colic flexure

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.

      The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.

      The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.

      The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came...

    Correct

    • A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came to the hospital. Examination revealed multiple lymphadenopathy with splenomegaly. Investigations revealed haemoglobin 11 g/dl, haematocrit 32.4%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 93 fl, white blood cell count 63 × 109/l, and platelet count 39 × 109/l; along with characteristic Auer rods on peripheral blood smear. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      AML, or acute myeloid leukaemia is the commonest acute leukaemia affecting adults. increasing in incidence with age. It is a malignancy of the myeloid line of white blood cells. It results in rapid proliferation of abnormal cells, which accumulate in the marrow. Interference with normal cell production leads to a drop in red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. This causes symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, tendency to bleed or bruise easily and recurrent infections. AML is known to progress quickly and can lead to death in weeks and months if not treated. Leukemic blasts of AML show presence of Auer rods. These are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form needles in the cytoplasm. Composed of fused lysosomes, these contain peroxidase, lysosomal enzymes and crystalline inclusions. Auer rods are classically present in myeloid blasts of M1, M2, M3 and M4 acute leukaemia. They also help to distinguish the preleukemia myelodysplastic syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      81.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for the last 5 days. A CT scan reveals an oedematous mass with ring enhancement in the left temporal region. It is biopsied, revealing glial cells, necrosis, neutrophils and lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. It is most frequent in the third decade of life, and when it occurs in children, it is usually associated with congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part...

    Correct

    • The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part of the lacrimal sac and drains into which structure?

      Your Answer: Inferior meatus

      Explanation:

      The nasolacrimal duct carries tears from the lacrimal sac of the eye into the nasal cavity. The duct begins in the eye socket between the maxillary and lacrimal bones, from where it passes downwards and backwards. The opening of the nasolacrimal duct into the inferior nasal meatus of the nasal cavity is partially covered by a mucosal fold (valve of Hasner or plica lacrimalis). Excess tears flow through the nasolacrimal duct which drains into the inferior nasal meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6...

    Correct

    • A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6 months and a recent-onset of milk discharge from her breasts. She was not pregnant or on any medication. On enquiry, she admitted to having frequent headaches the last 4 months. Which of the following findings would you expect to see in her condition?

      Your Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia

      Explanation:

      Excessively high levels of prolactin in the blood is called hyperprolactinaemia. Normally, prolactin levels are less than 580 mIU/l in females and less than 450 mIU/l in men. The biologically inactive macroprolactin can lead to a false high reading. However, the patient remains asymptomatic. Dopamine down-regulates prolactin whereas oestrogen upregulates it. Hyperprolactinaemia can be caused due to lack of inhibition (compression of pituitary stalk or low dopamine levels), or increased production due to a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). Either of these causes can lead to a prolactin level of 1000-5000 mIU/l. However, levels more than 5000mIU/l are usually associated due to an adenoma and >100,000 mIU/l are seen in macroadenomas (tumours < 1cm in diameter). Increased prolactin causes increased dopamine release from the arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus. This increased dopamine in turn, inhibits the GnRH (Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone) thus blocking gonadal steroidogenesis resulting in the symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia. In women, it includes hypoestrogenism, anovulatory infertility, decreased or irregular menstruation or complete amenorrhoea. It can even cause production of breast milk, loss of libido, vaginal dryness and osteoporosis. In men, the symptoms include impotence, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction and infertility. In men, treatment can be delayed due to late diagnosis as they have no reliable indicator such as menstruation that might indicate a problem. Most of the male patients seek help only when headaches and visual defects start to surface.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the doctor complaining of cough, shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the doctor complaining of cough, shortness of breath, fever and weight loss. Chest X-ray revealed bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymph node enlargement and bilateral pulmonary opacities. Non-caseating granulomas were found on histological examination. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease of unknown aetiology that affects multiple organs but predominantly the lungs and intrathoracic lymph nodes. Systemic and pulmonary symptoms may both be present. Pulmonary involvement is confirmed by a chest X-ray and other imaging studies. The main histological finding is the presence of non-caseating granulomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be...

    Correct

    • Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be seen in:

      Your Answer: Cerebellar disease

      Explanation:

      The given symptoms are seen in diseases affecting the cerebellum. A cerebellar tremor is a slow tremor that occurs at the end of a purposeful movement. It is seen in cerebellar disease, such as multiple sclerosis or some inherited degenerative disorders and chronic alcoholism. Classically, tremors are produced in the same side of the body as a one-sided lesion. Cerebellar disease can also result in a wing-beating’ type of tremor called rubral or Holmes’ tremor – a combination of rest, action and postural tremors. Other signs of cerebellar disease include dysarthria (speech problems), nystagmus (rapid, involuntary rolling of the eyes), gait problems and postural tremor of the trunk and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:

      Your Answer: Decreased MCV

      Correct Answer: Normal MCV

      Explanation:

      MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      151.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the...

    Correct

    • This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:

      Your Answer: The iris

      Explanation:

      The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct?

      Your Answer: The coronary sinus drains into the great cardiac vein

      Correct Answer: The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus and this vein starts at the apex of the heart and ascends with the anterior ventricular branch of the left coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Most of the veins of the heart open into the coronary sinus. This is a wide venous channel, about 2.25 cm in length, situated in the posterior part of the coronary sulcus and covered by muscular fibres from the left atrium. Its tributaries are the great, small and middle cardiac veins, the posterior vein of the left ventricle and the oblique vein of the left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      88.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral artery located?

      Your Answer: Medial compartment

      Correct Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath also known as the crural sheath is made up of three compartments; lateral, intermediate and the medial. The femoral artery is contained in the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath while the femoral vein is in the intermediate compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of...

    Correct

    • On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?

      Your Answer: Anterior circumflex humeral

      Explanation:

      The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off 3 branches: the subscapular, anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?...

    Correct

    • Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of...

    Correct

    • A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of the following findings is most often associated with clinical bleeding?

      Your Answer: Factor IX deficiency

      Explanation:

      Factor IX deficiency, also called Haemophilia B or Christmas disease, is a disorder caused by missing or defective clotting factor IX. Deficiency of the factor IX causes irregular bleeding that can happen spontaneously or after mild trauma, surgery and dental extractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      125.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP is 70/33 mmhg, heart rate of 140 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood resulting in his BP returning to 100/70 and his heart rate to 90 beats/min. What decreased following transfusion?

      Your Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood to replace the volume lost. It is important not only to replace fluids but stop active bleeding in resuscitation. Fluid replacement will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling thus reducing total peripheral resistance and increasing cardiac output and cardiac filling pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      110.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the...

    Correct

    • In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the tail of the pancreas that is closely associated with the spleen to avoid post operative pancreatic fistula. As a general surgeon conducting a splenectomy where are you most likely to find the tail of the pancreas in the abdominal cavity?

      Your Answer: Splenorenal ligament

      Explanation:

      The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal part of the pancreas and is found contained in the splenorenal ligament of the peritoneal cavity. The splenorenal ligament is derived from the peritoneum where the wall of the general peritoneal cavity connects to the omental bursa between the spleen and the left kidney. This ligament contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.

      The gastrocolic ligament stretches from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon, connecting the two.

      The gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the greater omentum and is the structure that connects the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. The gastrosplenic ligament continues from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm and acts as a support to the spleen.

      The transverse colon is connected to the abdominal wall by the mesocolon ligament.

      The falciform ligament on the other hand, attaches the liver to the ventral wall of the abdomen.

      The hepatoduodenal ligament connects the porta hepatis of the liver to the superior part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      90.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod?

      Your Answer: Clostridium tetani

      Explanation:

      Gram-positive rods include Clostridia, Listeria and diphtheroids.

      Gram-negative rods include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Yersinia, Haemohilus, Pseudomonas, Shigella, Legionella, proteus and Salmonella

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      43.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (5/7) 71%
Respiratory (3/4) 75%
Abdomen (3/5) 60%
Anatomy (9/15) 60%
Head & Neck (4/6) 67%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Pathology (7/8) 88%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed