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  • Question 1 - What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis:

      Your Answer: Causes splitting of the centromere

      Correct Answer: Phosphorylation of proteins that make up pre-replication complexes

      Explanation:

      There are certain regulators of the cell cycles that mediate progression through the cell cycle. These are cyclins and cyklin-dependent kinases (CDKs). They form a complex that phosphorylates protein involved in the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate?

      Your Answer: Avocado

      Correct Answer: Yellow vegetables

      Explanation:

      Folate naturally occurs in a wide variety of foods, including vegetables (particularly dark green leafy vegetables), fruits and fruit juices, nuts, beans, peas, dairy products, poultry and meat, eggs, seafood, grains, and some beers. Avocado, beetroot, spinach, liver, yeast, asparagus, and Brussels sprouts are among the foods with the highest levels of folate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced...

    Correct

    • H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced with the help of which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Carbonic anhydrase ii

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyses the rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water to bicarbonate and protons (or vice versa). This is a reversible reaction that takes place in the gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      74.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Choose the correct answer: The interposed nuclei… ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct answer: The interposed nuclei…

      Your Answer: Send fibers to the thalamus and red nucleus via the superior cerebellar peduncles

      Correct Answer: Are the emboliform and globose nuclei in the paravermis

      Explanation:

      The interposed nuclei are a part of deep cerebellar complex and are composed of the globose nucleus and the emboliform nucleus. It receives afferent fibers from the anterior lobe of the cerebellum and sends output via the superior cerebellar peduncle to the red nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Where is retinol mainly stored? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is retinol mainly stored?

      Your Answer: Kidneys

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Vitamin A is a group of unsaturated nutritional organic compounds that includes retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and several provitamin A carotenoids (most notably beta-carotene). The liver stores a multitude of substances, including glucose (in the form of glycogen), vitamin A (1–2 years’ supply), vitamin D (1–4 months’ supply), vitamin B12 (3–5 years’ supply), vitamin K, iron, and copper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 1n

      Correct Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient with achalasia ...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with achalasia

      Your Answer: Has failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to contract.

      Correct Answer: Has decreased production of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus and the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES). It is characterized by incomplete LES relaxation, increased LES tone, and lack of peristalsis of the oesophagus (inability of smooth muscle to move food down the oesophagus) in the absence of other explanations like cancer or fibrosis. In achalasia, there is loss of nitric oxide (NO) and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP) releasing inhibitory neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The ability of the SA node cells to allow ionic flow through channels...

    Incorrect

    • The ability of the SA node cells to allow ionic flow through channels activated in a hyperpolarized state is known as:

      Your Answer: Depolarization

      Correct Answer: Pace maker potential

      Explanation:

      Rhythmically discharging cells have a membrane potential that, after each impulse, declines to the firing level. Thus this prepotential or Pacemaker potential triggers the next impulse. The inherent leakiness of the sinus nodal fibers to Na+ and Ca2+ causes their self excitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Absorption of fructose is via: ...

    Incorrect

    • Absorption of fructose is via:

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport

      Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Dietary fructose may be ingested as a monosaccharide or as a disaccharide. Sucrose is hydrolysed by sucrase to produce equal amounts of glucose and fructose and in this form, is usually completely absorbed. Fructose is mostly absorbed in the small intestine through GLUT-5 transporter mediated facilitative diffusion. This is an energy independent process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In the absence of insulin: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the absence of insulin:

      Your Answer: Glucose uptake by the liver is increased

      Correct Answer: Glucose uptake by most of the brain is normal

      Explanation:

      Although it is known that insulin levels affect glucose uptake, oxidation and storage in peripheral tissues, its role in the brain isn’t as clear. However, studies have shown that bulk brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin. Glucose transport into the neurons is GLUT3 dependent, and its transport into glia and brain endothelial cells rely on GLUT1. Insulin isn’t necessary for GLUT1 or GLUT3, which explains why brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following substances is involved in the respiratory burst by the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following substances is involved in the respiratory burst by the neutrophil?

      Your Answer: NADPh oxidase

      Explanation:

      The respiratory burst is a rapid release of reactive oxygen species (ROS) from neutrophils and other phagocytes. This process is crucial for the destruction of pathogens. The key components and enzymes involved in the respiratory burst include:

      1. NADPH oxidase: This enzyme complex plays a central role in the respiratory burst by converting oxygen (O2) into superoxide anion (O2•-), a reactive oxygen species. This is the initial step in the production of various ROS.
      2. Superoxide dismutase (SOD): This enzyme converts superoxide anion (O2•-) into hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). While SOD is involved in the pathway, the respiratory burst is initiated by NADPH oxidase.
      3. Myeloperoxidase (MPO): This enzyme uses hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to produce hypochlorous acid (HOCl) from chloride ions (Cl-), which is a potent antimicrobial agent. Myeloperoxidase also produces other reactive species using halide ions.
      4. Catalase: This enzyme degrades hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into water (H2O) and oxygen (O2). While catalase helps to protect the cell from oxidative damage by breaking down H2O2, it is not involved in the generation of ROS during the respiratory burst.
      5. Adenylate cyclase: This enzyme is involved in the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) from ATP and is not directly related to the respiratory burst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      Trabecular, spongy or cancellous bone. It is located inside the cortical bone and makes up around 20% of all bone in the body. It is made of spicules or plates with a high surface to volume ratio, where many cells sit on the surface of the end plates. It receives its nutrients from the extracellular fluid (ECF), exchanging about 10 mmol of calcium every 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres.

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe : primary motor and premotor cortices

      Correct Answer: Parietal lobe : primary somatosensory cortex

      Explanation:

      Parietal lobe: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. It is responsible for processing sensory information from the body.

      Frontal lobe: The primary motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. The frontal lobe also contains the premotor cortex, which is involved in planning movements. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, not the frontal lobe.

      Temporal lobe: The primary auditory cortex is located in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe. The primary motor and premotor cortices are located in the frontal lobe, not the temporal lobe.

      Occipital lobe: The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe. The primary auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe, not the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the following is most likely to be a feature of this type of carcinoma?

      Your Answer: It is commonly seen in patients under 45 years of age

      Correct Answer: It is capable of metastasising via the lymphatics

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell skin cancer usually presents as a hard lump with a scaly top but can also form an ulcer. Onset is often over months and it is more likely to spread to distant areas than basal cell cancer vie the lymphatics. The greatest risk factor is high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Other risks include prior scars, chronic wounds, actinic keratosis, lighter skin, Bowen’s disease, arsenic exposure, radiation therapy, poor immune system function, previous basal cell carcinoma, and HPV infection. While prognosis is usually good, if distant spread occurs five-year survival is ,34%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the normal portal venous pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal portal venous pressure?

      Your Answer: 20 mm hg

      Correct Answer: 6 mm hg

      Explanation:

      Portal venous pressure is the blood pressure in the hepatic portal vein, and is normally between 5-10 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to?

      Your Answer: Conjugate a drug to make it more soluble.

      Correct Answer: Facilitate oxidations or hydrolysis of drugs.

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome p 450 are a family of proteins involved in drug metabolism which accounts for about 75% of the total metabolism. Most drugs are deactivated directly or by facilitated excretion from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which cells secrete insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells secrete insulin?

      Your Answer: D cells of the pancreatic islets

      Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is synthesised and stored by the B cells of the pancreatic islets (70% of islet cells), glucagon is synthesised and stored in the A cells (20%) and somatostatin is synthesised and stored in the D cells (10%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      65.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)

      Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called: ...

    Incorrect

    • The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called:

      Your Answer: In situ hybridization

      Correct Answer: PCR

      Explanation:

      PCR/polymerase chain reaction is a procedure carried out in a test tube that can be used on the smallest amount of DNA to amplify it, allowing for millions of copies of specific nucleotides to be made.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer: A tricyclic antidepressant

      Correct Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

      The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:• Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos• Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX• Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate• Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon• Herbicides – merphos• Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphateSigns and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:• Muscarinic effects:o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotensiono Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distresso Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinenceo Genitourinary – Incontinenceo Ocular – Blurred vision, miosiso Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis• Nicotinic effects:o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.• Central nervous system (CNS) effects:o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoeaMainstay Treatment:• Decontamination• Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation• Atropine• Pralidoxime• Benzodiazepines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?...

    Incorrect

    • In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?

      Your Answer: Intestine

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following drugs requires plasma level monitoring? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs requires plasma level monitoring?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      All patients require plasma-vancomycin measurement (after 3 or 4 doses if renal function normal, earlier if renal impairment). There is a risk of nephrotoxicity including renal failure, interstitial nephritis and ototoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements with regards to regulation of pulmonary blood flow...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements with regards to regulation of pulmonary blood flow is correct:

      Your Answer: Increased CO2 causes a decrease in pH causing vasodilation

      Correct Answer: Decreased blood flow to a region causes constriction of bronchi that area

      Explanation:

      Oxygen deficiency or hypoxia has a direct effect on pulmonary vessels and results in vasoconstriction. Increased carbon dioxide levels causes pH levels to fall and results in pulmonary vasoconstriction. Decreased blood flow to a pulmonary region causes bronchoconstriction in that area to allow for flow of blood to an area where ventilation is high. Exercise increases demand of oxygen and causes increased pulmonary artery pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase. ...

    Correct

    • The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.

      Your Answer: Germ cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes...

    Incorrect

    • The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes contraction of the intrinsic sphincter?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) is a specific region of the oesophageal circular smooth muscle. It allows the passage of a food bolus to the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus. The tone of the LOS is myogenic in origin and depends on smooth muscle properties that lead to the opening of Ca2+ channels but can also be modulated by enteric motor neurons, the parasympathetic and sympathetic extrinsic nervous system and several neurohumoral substances. Nitric oxide causes LOS relaxation. Acetylcholine and tachykinins are involved in the LOS contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Oxidation is defined as a: ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxidation is defined as a:

      Your Answer: Addition of electrons to substances

      Correct Answer: Loss of electrons from molecules

      Explanation:

      Oxidation is the loss of electrons or an increase in oxidation state by a molecule, atom, or ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the average life span of eosinophils? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average life span of eosinophils?

      Your Answer: 18 hours

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils have a circulating half-life of approximately 18 hours and a tissue life span of at least 6 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following leads to decreased prolactin levels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following leads to decreased prolactin levels?

      Your Answer: TRH

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine has an important effect on the regulation of prolactin secretion. Dopamine binds to type-2 dopamine receptors of the lactotroph cells that are functionally linked to membrane channels and G proteins and suppresses the high secretory activity of the pituitary lactotrophs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TRH

      Explanation:

      Thyrotropin-releasing hormone, also known as TRH, thyrotropin-releasing factor, TRF is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus. It functions as a releasing hormone, promoting the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone or thyrotropin and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (1/4) 25%
Medicine (13/29) 45%
Gastrointestinal (0/4) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Connective Tissue (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (3/5) 60%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Passmed