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  • Question 1 - The most important difference between interstitial fluid and plasma is the: ...

    Correct

    • The most important difference between interstitial fluid and plasma is the:

      Your Answer: Protein concentration

      Explanation:

      Interstitial fluid (or tissue fluid or intercellular fluid) is a solution that surrounds the cells of multicellular animals. It is the main component of the extracellular fluid, which also includes plasma, lymph and transcellular fluid. Plasma, the major component in blood, communicates freely with interstitial fluid through pores and intercellular clefts in capillary endothelium. Interstitial fluid consists of a water solvent containing amino acids, sugars, fatty acids, coenzymes, hormones, neurotransmitters, salts, as well as waste products from the cells. Red blood cells, platelets and plasma proteins cannot pass through the walls of the capillaries. The resulting mixture that does pass through is essentially blood plasma without the plasma proteins. Tissue fluid also contains certain types of white blood cells. Once the extracellular fluid collects into small vessels it is considered to be lymph, and the vessels that carry it back to the blood are called the lymphatic vessels. The lymphatic system returns protein and excess interstitial fluid to the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      71.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm,...

    Correct

    • The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, decides not to re-implant the inferior mesenteric artery into the repaired abdominal aorta. She says that an anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is good enough to supply blood to the territory of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which vessel is she referring to?

      Your Answer: Marginal

      Explanation:

      The marginal artery is a key anastomosis for the large intestine that runs around the border of the large intestine and is formed by the anastomosis of the branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery and sigmoid artery. If a small artery is occluded, these branches allow blood to reach all segments of the colon.

      The arcades are anastomotic loops between the arteries that provide alternative pathways for blood flow. They are more prominent in the small intestine than the large intestine.

      Arteriae rectae are small branches that run from the marginal artery to reach the colon.

      The ileocolic artery is the branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the caecum, appendix and terminal part of the ileum.

      The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      117.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Passing through the lesser sciatic foramen are the: ...

    Correct

    • Passing through the lesser sciatic foramen are the:

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      Structures that pass through the lesser sciatic foramen include:

      – the pudendal nerve

      – the nerve to obturator internus

      – internal pudendal artery

      – the tendon of obturator internus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following toxins most likely results in continuous cAMP production, which...

    Correct

    • Which of the following toxins most likely results in continuous cAMP production, which pumps H2O, sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate into the lumen of the small intestine and results in rapid dehydration?

      Your Answer: Cholera toxin

      Explanation:

      The cholera toxin (CTX or CT) is an oligomeric complex made up of six protein subunits: a single copy of the A subunit (part A), and five copies of the B subunit (part B), connected by a disulphide bond. The five B subunits form a five-membered ring that binds to GM1 gangliosides on the surface of the intestinal epithelium cells. The A1 portion of the A subunit is an enzyme that ADP-ribosylates G proteins, while the A2 chain fits into the central pore of the B subunit ring. Upon binding, the complex is taken into the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the disulphide bond is reduced, and the A1 subunit is freed to bind with a human partner protein called ADP-ribosylation factor 6 (Arf6). Binding exposes its active site, allowing it to permanently ribosylate the Gs alpha subunit of the heterotrimeric G protein. This results in constitutive cAMP production, which in turn leads to secretion of H2O, Na+, K+, Cl−, and HCO3− into the lumen of the small intestine and rapid dehydration. The gene encoding the cholera toxin was introduced into V. cholerae by horizontal gene transfer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed...

    Correct

    • During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:

      Your Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.

      An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.

      Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.

      Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      83
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:

      1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)

      2. LH (luteinizing hormone)

      3. Growth hormone

      4. Prolactin

      5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

      6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).

      The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:

      1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)

      2. Oxytocin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The periphery of a haematoma is infiltrated by fibroblasts, collagen and new vasculature....

    Correct

    • The periphery of a haematoma is infiltrated by fibroblasts, collagen and new vasculature. This process is best described as?

      Your Answer: Organisation of the haematoma

      Explanation:

      Formation of granulation tissue at the periphery of the hematoma is a normal process leading to resolution. This granulation tissue is composed of new capillaries, fibroblasts and collagen. Lysis of a blood clot can occur, but the actual process of this response is known as organization, wherein the scar tissue will become part of the vessels. This is followed by recanalization and embolization which can lead to eventual complications. Proliferation of a clot will occur due to an imbalance in the clotting and lysing systems. Thrombosis has nothing to do with the process described above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint:...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint: redness, swelling and pain. The analysis of synovial fluid reveals needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Gout is a rheumatic disease caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals into tissues, usually joints. This causes acute or chronic pain; the acute illness initially affects only one joint, often the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis of the disease requires the identification of crystal in the synovial fluid. These crystals are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that...

    Correct

    • A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that there was a transverse fracture of the upper end of the fibula. It was manifested clinically by inability to flex his foot at the ankle joint plus weak extension of the phalanges. What nerve is suspected to be injured in such a case?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies the muscles allowing for flexion of the foot at the ankle joint, namely the tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius muscles. The peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis, and peroneus longus evert the foot, whereas the tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior invert the foot. Fibres of the deep peroneal nerve originate from L4, L5, and S1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      150
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During clinic, a medical student conducts a physical examination on a teenage boy...

    Correct

    • During clinic, a medical student conducts a physical examination on a teenage boy with a lump in the inguinal region. The lump is protruding from the superficial inguinal ring. The student correctly concluded that it was:

      Your Answer: Either a direct or an indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      It is not possible to tell if an inguinal hernia is direct or indirect just by palpating it. Despite the fact that indirect inguinal hernias commonly come out of the superficial inguinal ring to enter the scrotum, direct inguinal hernia might still do this.

      Femoral hernia goes through the femoral ring into the femoral canal (has nothing to do with the superficial inguinal ring).

      Superficial inguinal lymph nodes lie in the superficial fascia parallel to the inguinal ligament; it would therefore feel more superficial and would not be mistaken for a hernia protruding through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      70.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his...

    Correct

    • An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his left middle and ring fingers, which he can't extend fully. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibromatosis

      Explanation:

      This case is suggestive of Dupuytren’s contracture due to palmar fibromatosis. Its incidence is higher in men over the age of 45 years, and it increases in patients with diabetes, alcoholism, or epilepsy. These nodules are benign, usually appearing as a tender nodule in the palm which becomes painless. The disease has an aggressive clinical behaviour and recurs frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test...

    Correct

    • The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test should be done on this patient to screen for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Pap smear

      Explanation:

      Worldwide, approximately 500,000 new cases of cervical cancer and 274,000 deaths are attributable to cervical cancer yearly. This makes cervical cancer the second most common cause of death from cancer in women. The mainstay of cervical cancer screening has been the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands....

    Correct

    • A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands. He first removed the left adrenal gland before moving on to the right one. However, the registrar noticed that the removal of the right adrenal gland would be a challenge because of an overlying structure. What was this structure that overlies the right suprarenal glad?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The adrenal glands or the suprarenal glands are small glands that are found on top of each of the kidneys. They are retroperitoneal glands. The right adrenal gland is found on top of the right kidney and is closely associated with the inferior vena cava as it directly drains into this large vein. In the case where the right adrenal gland is to be surgically removed, the inferior vena cava might prove a problem to manoeuvre as it overlies the right suprarenal gland. The other blood vessels such as the aorta, right renal, superior mesenteric, splenic artery and the hepatic vein as well as the right crus are not closely associated with either of the suprarenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said...

    Correct

    • A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said to have been involved in a mall explosion. Chest imaging reveals metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. He also has a pericardial effusion suggestive of a pericardial tear. An emergency thoracotomy is done which revealed a tear of the pericardium inferiorly. The surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac with his hand from below the apex. He slips his fingers upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. His finger tips were now in the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this sinus.

      Coronary sinus: large vein that drains the heart into the right atrium. Located on the surface of the heart.

      Coronary sulcus: groove on the heart demarcating the atria from the ventricles.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      110
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?

      Your Answer: Digastric

      Explanation:

      The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:

      – The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric

      – The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid

      – The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of...

    Correct

    • A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of normal tissue in an otherwise normal area. This condition is known as?

      Your Answer: Hamartoma

      Explanation:

      A hamartoma is a condition best described as tissue normally present in an area arranged haphazardly in an disorganized, abnormal fashion. They are never malignant and do not metastasis.

      All the neoplastic, cancerous lesions comprise of a mixture of different cells that are not normal to that area.

      Metaplasia is a change in the type of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      56.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the following segments of bowel is most likely to have preserved arterial supply?

      Your Answer: Rectum

      Correct Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the end of the transverse colon and all distal structures in the gastrointestinal tract i.e. splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum would all be deprived of blood if it were occluded. The caecum receives blood from the superior mesenteric artery so it would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      65.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion: ...

    Correct

    • A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion:

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephrosis, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema. It is a component of glomerulonephritis, in which different degrees of proteinuria occur. Essentially, loss of protein through the kidneys leads to low protein levels in the blood , which causes water to be drawn into soft tissues (oedema). Severe hypoalbuminemia can also cause a variety of secondary problems, such as water in the abdominal cavity (ascites), around the heart or lung (pericardial effusion, pleural effusion), high cholesterol, loss of molecules regulating coagulation (hence increased risk of thrombosis). The most common sign is excess fluid in the body due to the serum hypoalbuminemia. Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues. Sodium and water retention aggravates the oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      72.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left...

    Correct

    • A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left breast as compared to the right breast since puberty. The most likely cause for this is:

      Your Answer: Virginal breast hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Virginal breast hypertrophy’ is the term assigned to excessive growth of breasts during puberty and is a common phenomenon. It is also known as ‘juvenile macromastia’ or ‘ juvenile gigantomastia’. The breast hypertrophy often starts with menarche and occasionally occurs in growth spurts. These spurts can cause physical discomfort, red and itchy skin or pain in the breasts. The breasts can also grow continuously over several years and lead to overdevelopment of a normal breast. Nipples also undergo enlargement along with the breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow)?

      Your Answer: Hepatic

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen is an important anatomical opening that allows for the communication between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. Its boundaries are formed; superiorly by the caudate lobe of the liver, anteriorly by the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the components of the portal triad), inferiorly by the first part of the duodenum and posteriorly by the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava. The superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, which forms the inferior boundary of the foramen of Winslow, forms the course of the hepatic artery before it ascends to the porta hepatis where it divides into its right and left branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      76.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases?...

    Correct

    • Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases? This type is predominant in children and in patients who have had a previous history of head or neck radiation.

      Your Answer: Papillary carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer. This cancer has a high cure rate with 10-year survival rates for all patients with papillary thyroid cancer estimated at 80% to 90%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      64.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Correct

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the testis affecting an adult male?

      Your Answer: Seminoma

      Explanation:

      Germ cell tumours represent 90% of primary tumours arising in the testis. They are broadly divided into seminomas and non-seminomas. Seminomas are the most common testicular germ cell tumour seen in 40% cases. The other non-seminomatous histological subtypes include embryonal (25%), teratocarcinoma (25%), teratoma (5%) and pure choriocarcinoma (1%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The petrous part of the internal carotid artery is located inside of which...

    Correct

    • The petrous part of the internal carotid artery is located inside of which cranial bone?

      Your Answer: Temporal

      Explanation:

      The petrous segment, or C2, of the internal carotid is that which is inside the petrous part of the temporal bone. This segment extends until the foramen lacerum. The petrous portion classically has three sections: an ascending, or vertical portion; the genu, or bend; and the horizontal portion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the...

    Correct

    • What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid muscle

      Explanation:

      The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where? ...

    Correct

    • Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where?

      Your Answer: In the ileum

      Explanation:

      90 – 95% of the bile salts are absorbed from the small intestine (mostly terminal ileum and then excreted again from the liver. This is known as the enterohepatic circulation. The entire pool recycles twice per meal and approximately 6 to 8 times per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg veins and ending in the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of left lung?.

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left bronchial artery – left apical segmental artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery

      Explanation:

      A clot originating in the leg vein will go to the inferior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the right ventricle, through the pulmonary trunk, into the left pulmonary artery, into the left superior lobar artery and then finally reach the left apical segmental artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      91.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 34-year-old woman with pelvic inflammatory disease is administered ceftriaxone. The subclass of...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman with pelvic inflammatory disease is administered ceftriaxone. The subclass of antibiotics that ceftriaxone belongs to is:

      Your Answer: Third-generation cephalosporins

      Explanation:

      Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. It has a broad spectrum of activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Its indications include middle ear infections, endocarditis, meningitis, pneumonia, bone and joint infections, intra-abdominal infections, skin infections, urinary tract infections, gonorrhoea, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria...

    Correct

    • A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria for the past 3 days. Urine culture confirmed Neisseria gonorrhoeae and smear showed abundant neutrophils. Which of the following mediators is responsible for causing diapedesis of the neutrophils to reach the site of infection?

      Your Answer: Complement C5a

      Explanation:

      C5a is part of the complement cascade and is released frim the complement C5. It acts as a chemotactic factor for neutrophils. Other chemotactic mediators are TNF, leukotrienes and bacterial products.

      Bradykinin is associated with the production of pain and vasodilation.

      Hageman factor is a clotting factor.

      Histamine causes vasodilation.

      C3B causes opsonisation.

      IL-6 and IL-12 are inflammatory mediators causing B cell maturation and mediating inflammation and prostaglandins are involved with pain, increasing cell permeability and vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Urology
      • Pathology
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X

      Explanation:

      The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Fluids & Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Abdomen (5/6) 83%
Anatomy (12/14) 86%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (12/12) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (2/2) 100%
Orthopaedics (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (2/2) 100%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Head & Neck (3/3) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed