00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Raised ESR

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.

      PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 37-year-old male patient presented with bilateral kidney stones. He gave a history...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old male patient presented with bilateral kidney stones. He gave a history of sarcoidosis. What is the most probable cause for renal stones?

      Your Answer: Hyper calcaemic

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder which may involve the kidneys to a variable degree. Renal calculi have been reported to occur in about 10% of patients with chronic sarcoidosis. Hypercalcaemia due to marked hyperabsorption of dietary calcium, bone resorption and renal tubular calcium reabsorption causes hypercalciuria. Both hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria contribute to nephrolithiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old student presented with swelling and tenderness near the Lister tubercle of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old student presented with swelling and tenderness near the Lister tubercle of the radius. Passive extension of thumb and index finger further increases the pain. X-ray was normal. What will be the next step in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Correct Answer: Immobilization with a cast

      Explanation:

      This patient most likely has distal intersection syndrome, which occurs in the proximal forearm due to the tenosynovitis of extensor pollicis longus muscle tendons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in the urine and pain in his abdomen. On examination, abdominal swelling is present and blood pressure is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Urine analysis

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Haematuria and abdominal swelling may indicate either polycystic kidney disease or a tumour. Because of the patient’s age, the likelihood of a tumorous growth is small, thus an ultrasound is the best choice for this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his wife because lately...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his wife because lately he has lost interest in activities he previously enjoyed. His wife is worried and claims he's generally withdrawn. What would exclude depression in favour of dementia?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is not a usual symptom of depression. A depressed patient is usually capable of maintaining control of his body sphincters. In dementia, however, urinary incontinence is an important and late symptom of the disease, non-related to any urinary tract pathology. It is rather related to the cognitive impairment caused by dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Cancer of the prostate is associated with which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cancer of the prostate is associated with which of the following:

      Your Answer: Caucasian race

      Correct Answer: Exposure to cadmium

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for prostate cancer include:
      Black ethnicity
      A family history of breast or prostate cancer
      High intake of animal fats and low selenium intake
      Exposure to radiation or heavy metals including cadmium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal failure?

      Your Answer: Kidney size at ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The size of the kidneys on ultrasound would differentiate chronic from acute renal failures. Chronic renal failure is more associated with small-sized kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?

      Your Answer: Arrange DEXA scan + start strontium ranelate if T-score < -2.5 SD

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.

      Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.

      Management:
      Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
      Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
      Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
      Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female with a known diagnosis of hypothyroidism and receiving thyroxine, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with a known diagnosis of hypothyroidism and receiving thyroxine, came to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty sleeping for 3 days and a history of jaundice for 7 days. Her lab results showed increased levels of TSH and PT=70 sec. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drug induced hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune hepatitis is linked with other autoimmune diseases, such as hypothyroidism. It may present as acute or chronic hepatitis and sometimes cirrhosis. Fever, hepatic tenderness and history of jaundice is present. Non-specific features like behavioural issues, weight changes or mood swings can also be present. Coagulopathy can also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 44-year-old man complains of unceasing chest pain which is aggravated by inspiration...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man complains of unceasing chest pain which is aggravated by inspiration four weeks after his MI. His temperature is 37.5C and ESR is 45mm/h. What is the single most likely explanation for the abnormal investigations

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dressler syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler syndrome signs and symptoms include pericarditis, low-grade fever, and pleuritic chest pain. It commonly occurs two to five weeks following the initial event or for as long as three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack. Which lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack. Which lung function abnormality is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased residual volume

      Explanation:

      Asthma is a condition characterized by airway hyperresponsiveness, which results in reversible increases in bronchial smooth muscle tone, and variable amounts of inflammation of the bronchial mucosa.
      During an acute asthma attack, the already inflamed airways narrow further due to bronchospasm, which leads to increased airway resistance. Because of the increased smooth muscle tone during an asthma attack, the airways also tend to close at abnormally high lung volumes, trapping air behind occluded or narrowed small airways. Thus the acute asthmatic will breathe at high lung volumes, his functional residual capacity will be elevated, and he will inspire close to total lung capacity. The accessory muscles of respiration are often used to maintain the lungs in a hyperinflated state.

      During episodes of acute asthma, pulmonary function tests reveal an obstructive pattern. This includes a decrease in the rate of maximal expiratory air flow (a decrease in FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio) due to the increased resistance, and a reduction in forced vital capacity (FVC) correlating with the level of hyperinflation of the lungs. Because these patients breathe at such high lung volumes (near the top of the pressure-volume curve, where lung compliance greatly decreases), they must exert significant effort to create an extremely negative pleural pressure, and consequently fatigue easily. Overinflation also reduces the curvature of the diaphragm, making it less efficient in generating further negative pleural pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence: ...

    Incorrect

    • Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ib

      Explanation:

      1B: Individual Randomised Control Trial (with narrow confidence intervals)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma for the past 3 years. He presents with lethargy, muscle aches and pain in his lower back.
       
      Arterial blood sampling reveals a metabolic acidosis. Serum potassium is 3.1 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), and urine pH is 5.1 (> 5.3).
       
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis-type II

      Explanation:

      This case is most likely RTA type II, due to decreased proximal bicarbonate reabsorption, which leads to metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hyperchloremia, and <6 urine pH .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old male presented with a mass in his right groin. On examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presented with a mass in his right groin. On examination there was a pulsatile mass just below the midpoint of the inguinal ligament. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Midpoint of the inguinal ligament is halfway between the pubic tubercle and the anterior superior iliac spine (the two attachments of the inguinal ligament). The opening to the inguinal canal is located just above this point. The femoral artery is at the mid-inguinal point which is halfway between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. As the mass is at the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, the most probable answer is a femoral hernia. A femoral aneurysm is also a possibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competing in an iron...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competing in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows:
      Na+ 122 mmol/l
      K+ 3.4 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 69 umol/l

      During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertonic saline

      Explanation:

      Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
      Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
      The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
      Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following types of motor neuron diseases carries the worst prognosis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of motor neuron diseases carries the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progressive bulbar palsy

      Explanation:

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before 40 years and various patterns of disease are recognised including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, primary lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and progressive bulbar palsy. In some patients however, there is a combination of clinical patterns. In progressive bulbar palsy there is palsy of the tongue and muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei. This carries the worst prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old female presented with pain and whitening of the hands on exposure...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female presented with pain and whitening of the hands on exposure to cold. She has difficulty in swallowing solid foods so she has started swallowing only liquids. She developed shortness of breath on exertion and, subsequently, at rest. Which of the following is the most likely cause for dysphagia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Difficulty in swallowing which improves with liquids is mainly due to an obstructive lesion in oesophagus. But pulmonary involvement (breathlessness on exertion and later on rest) and Raynaud’s phenomena can only be described by systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old male has been receiving treatment for prostate cancer. He has complained...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male has been receiving treatment for prostate cancer. He has complained of pain in his pelvis and, following radiological investigations, is shown to have pelvic metastases. Choose the most appropriate course of investigation for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palliative radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      The patient could respond well to palliative radiotherapy. This course of action is likely to shrink the cancer and will, therefore, reduce the pain felt. Analgesics should then be used to control the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following options is true of patients with oesophageal varices? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options is true of patients with oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In spontaneous bacterial peritonitis cefotaxime appears to be a useful antibiotic

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone has been shown to have no effect on the mechanisms of portal hypertension. Also, chronic use of propranolol can reduce the risk of variceal bleeding. The banding of large varices has been shown to be effective, too. Octreotide and terlipressin are also both used to prevent secondary haemorrhage. Cefotaxime is the most commonly used cephalosporin when treating spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Spironolactone helps to combat secondary hyperaldosteronism which is related to liver failure. It also helps to treat salt and water retention, which both contribute to portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.
      Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.

      Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).

      Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.

      Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
      Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
      Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
      Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
      Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
      Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
      Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
      Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
      Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
      Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
      Renal: Acute renal failure

      Other options:
      Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12-15 hours.
      Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old male was recently diagnosed with hypertension and was prescribed Chlorothiazide. Now...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male was recently diagnosed with hypertension and was prescribed Chlorothiazide. Now he complains of a painful swelling in his left big toe for two days. What is the single most appropriate investigation for reaching the diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum uric acid

      Explanation:

      Bendroflumethiazide, like all thiazide diuretics, may cause hyperuricemia that can lead to gout and gouty arthritis. A test for serum uric acid will confirm this suspicion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 31-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin

      Explanation:

      An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists.

      Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).

      Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the hospital in altered sensorium. She is taking slow, shallow breaths and her breath has a fruity smell. An arterial blood gas (ABG) shows the presence of ketones. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      This a case of gestational diabetes presenting with DKA. It is a serious case that requires immediate intervention. Pregnant diabetics tend to develop DKA on a lower serum glucose level than non-pregnant diabetics. The shortness of breath is a trial to wash the excess CO2 to compensate for the metabolic acidosis seen in the ABG. The fruity smell is acetone excreted through the lungs. The main treatment of this case is proper fluid management and insulin infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 64-year-old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness....

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness. Her chest x-ray shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis. Three sputum tests stain positive for acid fast bacilli (AFB) but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.
       
      Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium avium intracellular complex

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection in immunocompetent hosts generally manifests as cough, sputum production, weight loss, fever, lethargy, and night sweats. The onset of symptoms is insidious.
      In patients who may have pulmonary infection with MAC, diagnostic testing includes acid-fast bacillus (AFB) staining and culture of sputum specimens.

      The ATS/IDSA guidelines include clinical, radiographic, and bacteriologic criteria to establish a diagnosis of nontuberculous mycobacterial lung disease.

      Clinical criteria are as follows:

      Pulmonary signs and symptoms such as cough, fatigue, weight loss; less commonly, fever and weight loss; dyspnoea

      Appropriate exclusion of other diseases (e.g., carcinoma, tuberculosis).

      At least 3 sputum specimens, preferably early-morning samples taken on different days, should be collected for AFB staining and culture. Sputum AFB stains are positive for MAC in most patients with pulmonary MAC infection. Mycobacterial cultures grow MAC in about 1-2 weeks, depending on the culture technique and bacterial burden.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old female patient presents with massive haemorrhage. After grouping, her blood sample...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents with massive haemorrhage. After grouping, her blood sample comes out to be B RhD negative.

      You work in the hospital's blood bank and are asked to prepare two units each of red blood cells (RBCs) and fresh frozen plasma (FFP). You manage to obtain the RBCs but not the Group B FFP as it is unavailable. Therefore, out of the following, FFP from a donor of which blood group would be best to transfuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AB RhD negative

      Explanation:

      Group AB donors are the universal donors of FFP. This is because they produce neither anti-A nor anti-B antigens in their plasma and are, therefore, compatible with all ABO groups.

      The aforementioned patient’s blood group is B meaning, thereby, she naturally produces anti-A antigens in her plasma and would need to receive plasma that does not have anti-B antigens in it. Hence, she can only receive FFP from donors of group B or AB. Moreover, as she is of childbearing age, she must receive RhD negative blood in order to avoid problems with future pregnancies if her foetus would be RhD positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon feeding and she wouldn't stop crying. The doctors suspect a congenital heart disease. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries results in a significant hypoxemic status that is observed clinically by central cyanosis. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is therefore the basic pattern of clinical presentation in transposition. Its onset and severity depend on anatomical and functional variants that influence the degree of mixing between the two circulations. Limited intercirculatory mixing, usually present if the ventricular septum is intact or the atrial septal defect is restrictive, is related to progressive and profound central cyanosis evident within the first hours of life. Tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, poor weight gain, a gallop rhythm, and eventually hepatomegaly can be then detected later on during infancy. Heart murmurs associated with left outflow tract obstruction, due to a persistent arterial duct or a septal defect may be heard, but they are not a constant finding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed:


      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 2.9 mmol/l
      Chloride 114 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 µmol/l

      Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 18-year-old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion for...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion for 5 minutes with urinary incontinence and eye rolling. On examination, he was drowsy and had bilateral upgoing plantar reflexes. A short while ago he had been playing rugby and had taken a hit to the head. He was apparently normal for a few minutes before fitting. His blood sugar level was normal. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-traumatic seizure

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of a post-traumatic seizure which frequently occurs after moderate or severe traumatic brain injury. Although upgoing plantars can be identified in a post-ictal status, an intracranial bleed has to be excluded. A single seizure cannot be considered epilepsy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 6-year-old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology & Oncology (0/1) 0%
Renal System (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal System (0/1) 0%
Geriatric Medicine (1/1) 100%
Men's Health (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Hepatobiliary System (0/1) 0%
Passmed