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  • Question 1 - Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve,...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, passes?

      Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus is a canal within the petrous part of the temporal bone of the skull between the posterior cranial fossa and the inner ear. It provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray demonstrated widespread nodular opacities. After a bronchoalveolar lavage, atypical cells were detected. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchioalveolar carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC) is a term used to define a particular subtype of adenocarcinoma which develops in cells near the alveoli, in the outer regions of the lungs. On a chest X-ray it can appear as a single peripheral spot or as scattered spots throughout the lungs. Symptoms include cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea and loss of weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of the following clinical features will have prompted the doctor to check the serum magnesium level in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterised by a low level of magnesium in the blood. The normal range for serum magnesium level is 0.75-1.05 mmol/l. In hypomagnesaemia serum levels of magnesium are less than 0.75 mmol/l. The cardiovascular and nervous systems are the most commonly affected. Neuromuscular manifestations include symptoms like tremor, tetany, weakness, apathy, delirium, a positive Chvostek and Trousseau sign, nystagmus and seizures. Cardiovascular manifestations include electrocardiographic abnormalities and arrhythmias e.g. ventricular fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Incorrect

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An excised lesion is found to be a premalignant during examination by the...

    Incorrect

    • An excised lesion is found to be a premalignant during examination by the pathologist. What is the most likely histopathology report of this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Solar keratosis

      Explanation:

      Premalignant condition is a state of disordered morphology of cells that is associated with an increased risk of cancer. If this condition is left untreated, it may lead to the development of cancer. The following are examples of pre-malignant lesions: actinic keratosis, Barret’s oesophagitis, atrophic gastritis, ductal carcinoma in situ, dyskeratosis congenita, sideropenic dysphagia, lichen planus, oral submucous fibrosis, solar elastosis, cervical dysplasia, leucoplakia and erythroplakia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was scheduled for CT scan. If the CT scan revealed a tumour at the horn of the lateral ventricle, which of the following structures is most likely to be compressed by this tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibres of the corpus callosum

      Explanation:

      The ventricular system of the brain is made up of four ventricles namely; two lateral and a third and forth ventricle. The ventricles are the site of the development of the cerebrospinal fluid. The left and right lateral ventricles are located in each of the brain’s hemispheres. The roof of the lateral ventricles are made up of the fibres of the corpus callosum. This is the structure that would be compressed by the a tumour on the roof of the lateral ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front...

    Incorrect

    • The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery is an artery in the neck. It arises from the thyrocervical trunk and passes upward, in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the motor innervation of this muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A branch of a nerve that exits through the stylomastoid foramen

      Explanation:

      The orbicularis oculi is a muscle in the face that closes the eyelids. It is supplied by zygomatic branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), which exits through the stylomastoid foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus....

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus. The consultant supervising explains that caution is required when placing a clamp on the ductus to avoid injury to an important structure immediately dorsal to it. To which structure is the consultant referring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The left recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus and wraps around the aorta, posterior to the ductus arteriosus/ligamentum arteriosum from whence it courses superiorly to innervate the laryngeal muscles.

      Accessory Hemiazygous vein is on the left side of the body draining the posterolateral chest wall and emptying blood into the azygos vein.

      The left internal thoracic artery is branch of the left subclavian artery supplying blood to the anterior wall of the thorax.

      Left phrenic nerve is lateral to the vagus nerve.

      Thoracic duct: is behind the oesophagus, coursing between the aorta and the azygos vein in the posterior chest.

      Right recurrent laryngeal nerve: loops around the right subclavian artery and is not in danger in this procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by three factors:

      – Acetylcholine, from parasympathetic neurones of the vagus nerve that innervate parietal cells directly

      – Gastrin, produced by pyloric G-cells

      – Histamine, produced by mast cells.

      Gastric acid is inhibited by three factors:

      – Somatostatin

      – Secretin

      – Cholecystokinin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-5

      Explanation:

      IL-5 is produced by TH2 helper cells and by mast cells. They stimulate increased secretion of immunoglobulins and stimulate B cell growth. They are the major regulators in eosinophil activation and control. They are also released from eosinophils and mast cells in asthmatic patients and are associate with a many other allergic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and shortness of breath. Electrocardiography findings show no P waves, normal QRS complexes and an irregularly irregular rhythm. The patient most probably has:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common arrhythmias, characterised by an irregular and rapid heart rate. Due to the decreased cardiac output, atrial fibrillation increases the risk of heart failure. It can also lead to thrombus formation which may lead to thromboembolic events. Clinical findings include palpitations, shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain and confusion. The diagnosis is made by electrocardiographic findings which include absent P wave, fibrillatory (f) waves between QRS complexes and irregularly irregular R-R intervals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening congestive heart failure. Autopsy revealed diffuse hyperplasia of the vascular intima involving the entire length of the coronary arteries. The most probable cause of deterioration of the cardiac function is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Allograft coronary artery disease (CAD) can begin right after the transplant and is the major cause of later death in cardiac transplant recipients. This form of atherosclerosis progresses quickly resulting in allograft failure. Due to lack of premonitory symptoms CAD may lead to sudden death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon accidentally cuts the first aortic intercostal arteries as he mobilised the descending aorta. Which one of the following structure might be deprived of its primary source of blood supply following this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right bronchus

      Explanation:

      The right bronchus is supplied by one right bronchial artery that may branch from one of the left bronchial arteries or from the right 3rd posterior intercostal artery (this is the first intercostal artery that arises from the aorta). Damage to this artery might stop blood supply to the main bronchus. Intercostal arteries that go to the first and the second interspaces originate from the highest intercostal artery such that blood supply to either of these spaces would not be interfered with.

      The left bronchus receives blood from 2 left bronchial arteries which are direct branches from the descending aorta.

      Fibrous pericardium is the sac that contains the heart. Its blood supply is not a major concern.

      Visceral pericardium receives its blood supply from the coronary vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following is a likely consequence of severe diarrhoea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a likely consequence of severe diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A decrease in the sodium content of the body

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea can occur due to any of the numerous aetiologies, which include infectious, drug-induced, food related, surgical, inflammatory, transit-related or malabsorption. Four mechanisms have been implicated in diarrhoea: increased osmotic load, increased secretion, inflammation and decreased absorption time. Diarrhoea can result in fluid loss with consequent dehydration, electrolyte loss (Na+, K+, Mg2+, Cl–) and even vascular collapse. Loss of bicarbonate ions can lead to a metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound to the chest. The wound is in a part of the left lung that might partially fill the costomediastinal recess in full respiration. Where did the weapon strike this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lingula

      Explanation:

      During full inspiration, the lingual-of the left lung partially fills the costomediastinal recess. If the apex of the lung is fully filled with air, it would occupy the copula (the part of the pleura that extends above the first rib). The hilum is part of the lung where the neurovascular structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung and doesn’t expand on inspiration. The middle lobe can expand to fill the costomediastinal recess, however, the middle lobe is on the right lung. The inferior lobe, during full inspiration, might fill the costodiaphragmatic recess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) will most likely be reduced by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) will most likely be reduced by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease in body temperature

      Explanation:

      The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is defined as the rate of calorie consumption after an overnight fast, in the absence of any muscular activity, with the patient in a restful state. Various factors affect the BMR including weight, body surface area and age. The BMR is 30 kcal/m2 per hour at birth; at age 2, the rate is 57 kcal/m2 per hour; and at age 20, 41 kcal/m2 per hour. After this, the BMR decreases by 10% between 20-60 years of age. Women are known to have a 10% lower BMR than men (due to higher fat content). A one-degree change in body temperature leads to a 10% change in BMR in the same direction. However, shivering and increasing ambient temperature brings about a rise in BMR, and so does stress, physical activity, caffeine, theophylline and hyperthyroidism. Also, thermogenesis induced by diet results in increased metabolic rate and hence, BMR should be ideally measured after overnight fasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in the stomach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acid pH and pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive precursor of pepsin. Once secreted, it comes in contact with hydrochloric acid and pepsin, previously formed, and undergoes cleavage to form active pepsin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where? ...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

      Explanation:

      The adrenal gland comprises an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which represent two developmentally and functionally independent endocrine glands.

      The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline (70%) and noradrenaline (30%)

      The adrenal cortex consists of three layers (remembered by the mnemonic GFR):

      G = zona glomerulosa – secretes aldosterone

      F = zona fasciculata – secretes cortisol and sex steroids

      R = zona reticularis – secretes cortisol and sex steroids.

      Aldosterone facilitates the reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Conn’s syndrome is characterized by increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following cytokines produced by the T cell induce MHC-II proteins?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cytokines produced by the T cell induce MHC-II proteins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: γ-Interferon

      Explanation:

      Interferons elicit a non-specific antiviral activity by inducing specific RNA synthesis and expression of proteins in neighbouring cells. Common interferon inducers are viruses, double-stranded RNA and micro-organisms. INF-γ is produced mainly by CD4+, CD8+ T cells and less commonly by B cells and natural killer cells. INF-γ has antiviral and antiparasitic activity but its main biological activity appears to be immunomodulatory. Among its many functions are activation of macrophages and enhanced expression of MHC-II proteins or macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is...

    Incorrect

    • A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of these is secreted by both macrophages and muscle cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these is secreted by both macrophages and muscle cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-6

      Explanation:

      IL-6 is secreted by the T cells and macrophages and is a pro inflammatory cytokine. It is secreted in response to trauma e.g. burns and tissue damage that leads to inflammation. Apart from this its is also a myokine and is elevated due to muscle contraction. Other functions include: stimulate osteoclast formation when secreted by osteoblasts, mediate fever in acute phase response and are responsible for energy metabolism in muscle and fatty tissues. Inhibitors of IL-6 e.g. oestrogen are used as a treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 26 - The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brachial

      Explanation:

      The brachial artery gives rise to a small branch at the middle of the arm, which is the superior collateral artery. It descends accompanied by the ulnar nerve and anastomoses with the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The posterior cord continues as the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The lateral cord continues as the musculocutaeous nerve.

      The medial cord continues as the ulnar nerve.

      The posterior cord continues as the radial nerve and the axillary nerve.

      The nerve to subclavius muscle is a branch of the C6 root.

      The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the upper trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
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  • Question 28 - Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin over the maxilla region and the mandible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal

      Explanation:

      The sensation of the face is provided by the trigeminal nerve which is cranial nerve V. It is also responsible for other motor functions such as biting and chewing. The trigeminal nerve has three branches; the ophthalmic nerve (V1), the maxillary nerve((V2) and the mandibular nerve (V3). These three branches exit the skull through separate foramina, namely; the superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale respectively. The mnemonic for this is ‘Standing room only’. The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges. The sensory fibres of the mandibular nerve are distributed to the lower lip, the lower teeth and gums, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the chin and jaw (except the angle of the jaw, which is supplied by C2–C3), parts of the external ear, and parts of the meninges. The mandibular nerve carries touch/ position and pain/temperature sensation from the mouth. The sensory fibres of the ophthalmic nerve are distributed to the scalp and forehead, the upper eyelid, the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye, the nose (including the tip of the nose), the nasal mucosa, the frontal sinuses and parts of the meninges (the dura and blood vessels). The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric pain undergoes a gastrointestinal endoscopy. There is no apparent mass or haemorrhage and a biopsy is taken from the lower oesophageal mucosa just above the gastro-oesophageal junction. The results reveal the presence of columnar cells interspersed with goblet cells. Which change best explains the above mentioned histology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is the transformation of one type of epithelium into another as a means to better cope with external stress on that epithelium. In this case metaplasia occurs due to the inflammation resulting from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Dysplasia is disordered cellular growth. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number but not cell type i.e. transformation. Carcinoma is characterized by cellular atypia. Ischaemia would result in necrosis with ulceration. Carcinoma insitu involves dysplastic atypical cells with the basement membrane intact and atrophy would mean a decrease in number of cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Gastrointestinal
      • Pathology
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  • Question 30 - A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion for 1 week. On examination, she was found to have multiple petechiae all over her skin and mucosal surfaces. Blood investigations revealed low platelet count and raised urea and creatinine. A platelet transfusion was carried out, following which she succumbed to death. Autopsy revealed pink hyaline thrombi in myocardial arteries. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Hyaline thrombi are typically associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is caused by non-immunological destruction of platelets. Platelet transfusion is contraindicated in TTP. Platelets and red blood cells also get damaged by loose strands of fibrin deposited in small vessels. Multiple organs start developing platelet-fibrin thrombi (bland thrombi with no vasculitis) typically at arteriocapillary junctions. This is known as ‘thrombotic microangiopathy’. Treatment consists of plasma exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
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