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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most likely affected in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?
Your Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis
Explanation:De Quervain tenosynovitis is named after the Swiss surgeon, Fritz de Quervain, who first described it in 1895. It is a condition which involves tendon entrapment affecting the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. With this condition thickening of the tendon sheaths around the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis develops where the tendons pass in through the fibro-osseous tunnel located along the radial styloid at the distal wrist. Pain is exacerbated by thumb movement and radial and ulnar deviation of the wrist.
The estimated prevalence of de Quervain tenosynovitis is about 0.5% in men and 1.3% in women with peak prevalence among those in their forties and fifties. It may be seen more commonly in individuals with a history of medial or lateral epicondylitis. Bilateral involvement is often reported in new mothers or child care providers in whom spontaneous resolution typically occurs once lifting of the child is less frequent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Haemophilia B results from a deficiency in:
Your Answer: Factor VIII
Correct Answer: Factor IX
Explanation:Haemophilia B is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of clotting factor IX. It is the second commonest form of haemophilia, and is rarer than haemophilia A. Haemophilia B tends to be similar to haemophilia A but less severe. The two disorders can only be distinguished by specific coagulation factor assays.
The incidence is one-fifth of that of haemophilia A. Laboratory findings demonstrate prolonged APTT, normal PT and low factor IX.
Haemophilia B inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion, affecting males born to carrier mothers.
There is also a variation called Leyden, in which factor IX levels are below 1% until puberty, when they rise, potentially reaching as high as 40-60% of normal. This is thought to be due to the effects of testosterone at puberty. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate, nasal regurgitation of food, and nasal quality to the voice.
Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely responsible for the aforementioned features?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vagus nerve
Explanation:The vagus nerve, ‘the wanderer’, contains motor fibres (to the palate and vocal cords), sensory components (posterior and floor of external acoustic meatus) and visceral afferent and efferent fibres.
Palatal weakness can cause nasal speech and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology to a group of medical students. You use the example of a man falling from a balcony onto spiked fencing, sustaining a puncture wound to the axilla. This results in an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see in this patient:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weakness of forearm pronation
Explanation:Flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm are weakened but not lost entirely due to the actions of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis and the supinator muscles respectively. There is loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Forearm pronation would not be affected as this is primarily produced by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, innervated by the median nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 5
Incorrect
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For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 59-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.
Which of the following medications will enhance warfarin's effects?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.
Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme potentiate the effects of warfarin, resulting in a higher INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibitors, use the mnemonic O DEVICES:
O– Omeprazole
D– Disulfiram
E– Erythromycin (And other macrolide antibiotics)
V– Valproate (sodium valproate)
I– Isoniazid
C– Ciprofloxacin
E– Ethanol (acute ingestion)
S- Sulphonamides -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of diazepam:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Adverse effects include:
Drowsiness and lightheadedness
Confusion and ataxia (especially in the elderly), amnesia, muscle weakness
Headache, vertigo, tremor, dysarthria, hypotension, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, gynaecomastia, urinary retention
Paradoxical effects such as talkativeness, excitement, irritability, aggression, anti-social behaviour, and suicidal ideation
Withdrawal symptoms, for example anxiety, depression, anorexia, impaired concentration, insomnia, abdominal cramps, palpitations, tremor, tinnitus and perceptual disturbances
Tolerance and dependence (people who use benzodiazepines longer term can develop tolerance and eventual dependence) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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C5 - C9 deficiency increases susceptibility to infection with which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neisseria spp.
Explanation:If the complement sequence is completed, an active phospholipase (the membrane attack complex, MAC) is produced, which punches holes in the cell membrane and causes cell lysis. Because the MAC appears to be the sole means to destroy the Neisseria family of bacteria, C5 – C9 deficiency increases susceptibility to Neisseria infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with face swelling prominently affecting her upper lip and hands. She has previously been diagnosed with hereditary angioedema.
Which of these is the most appropriate management option for this acute attack?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:Hereditary angioedema is inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder and is caused by deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that forms part of the complement system.
Attacks can be precipitated by stress and minor surgical procedures. Clinical features of hereditary angioedema include oedema of the skin and mucous membranes commonly affecting the face, tongue and extremities.
Angioedema and anaphylaxis due to a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor are resistant to adrenaline, steroids and antihistamines. Treatment is with fresh frozen plasma or C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate, which contains C1 esterase inhibitor.
Short-term prophylaxis for events that may precipitate angioedema attack is achieved with C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions before the event while long-term prophylaxis can be achieved with antifibrinolytic drugs (tranexamic acid) or androgenic steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the primary route of transmission of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sexually transmitted
Explanation:Neisseria gonorrhoeae is primarily spread by sexual contact or through transmission during childbirth. It causes gonorrhoea which is a purulent infection of the mucous membrane surfaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 10
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding metronidazole are correct except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole reduces the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
Explanation:The anticoagulant effect of warfarin is enhanced by metronidazole. If use of both cannot be avoided, one must consider appropriately reducing the warfarin dosage. With alcohol, metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction, with symptoms like flushing, headaches, dizziness, tachypnoea and tachycardia, nausea and vomiting. The common side effects of metronidazole include a metallic taste and gastrointestinal irritation, in particular nausea and vomiting. These side effects are more common at higher doses. This drug has high activity against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa, and is well absorbed orally. For severe infections, the intravenous route is normally reserved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.
Which of these statements about anaphylaxis is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The immunoglobulin-antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells.
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
It is IgE mediated.
It requires a prior exposure to the antigen. The initial exposure sensitizes the body to the antigen and a second exposure to that antigen leads to an anaphylactic reaction.
Massive calcium influx into the cells leads to mast cell degranulation.
The Immunoglobulin antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells. The result is mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, proteoglycans and serum proteases from cytoplasmic granules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding hookworm is FALSE:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transmission of hookworm is via ingestion of contaminated food and water.
Explanation:The hookworm life cycle begins with the passage of eggs from an adult host into the stool. Hookworm eggs hatch in the soil to release larvae that mature into infective larvae. Infection is usually transmitted by larval penetration into human skin (duodenal infection may also be transmitted by the oral route). From the skin, larvae migrate into the blood vessels and are carried to the lungs, where they penetrate the pulmonary alveoli, ascend the bronchial tree to the pharynx, and are swallowed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following describes the pulse pressure:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systolic - diastolic pressure
Explanation:During systole, the pressure in the left ventricle increases and blood is ejected into the aorta. The rise in pressure stretches the elastic walls of the aorta and large arteries and drives blood flow. Systolic pressure is the maximum arterial pressure during systole. During diastole, arterial blood flow is partly maintained by elastic recoil of the walls of large arteries. The minimum pressure reached before the next systole is the diastolic pressure. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is the pulse pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is transfused following a diagnosis of anaemia secondary to heavy vaginal bleeding. She complains of feeling hot and cold during transfusion of the second unit and her temperature is 38.5ºC. Prior to the transfusion, her temperature was 37ºC. She has no other symptoms.
Which of these transfusions reactions most likely occurred?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction
Explanation:Febrile transfusion reactions presents with an unexpected temperature rise (≥ 38ºC or ≥ 1ºC above baseline, if baseline ≥ 37ºC) during or shortly after transfusion. It is usually an isolated finding and the fever is accompanied by chills and malaise occasionally.
Allergic reaction is commonly caused by foreign plasma proteins but may be due to anti-IgA. Allergic type reactions usually present with urticaria, pruritus, hives. Associations include laryngeal oedema or bronchospasm.
Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.
Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is a form of acute respiratory distress caused by the donor plasma containing antibodies against the patient’s leukocytes. It is defined as hypoxia and bilateral pulmonary oedema that occurs within 6 hours of a transfusion in the absence of other causes of acute lung injury. Clinical features include Breathlessness, cough, frothy sputum, hypertension or hypotension, hypoxia and fever. Chest X-ray shows multiple perihilar nodules with infiltration of the lower lung fields.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is preservation of proprioception
Explanation:Anterior cord syndrome is an incomplete cord syndrome that predominantly affects the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord, characteristically resulting in motor paralysis below the level of the lesion as well as the loss of pain and temperature at and below the level of the lesion. The patient presentation typically includes these two findings; however, there is variability depending on the portion of the spinal cord affected. Other findings include back pain, or autonomic dysfunction such as hypotension, neurogenic bowel or bladder, and sexual dysfunction. The severity of motor dysfunction can vary, typically resulting in paraplegia or quadriplegia.
Proprioception, vibratory sense, two-point discrimination, and fine touch are not affected in anterior cord syndrome. These sensations are under the control of the dorsal column of the spinal cord, which is supplied by two posterior spinal arteries running in the posterior lateral sulci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman was rushed to the Emergency Department due to an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. She responded well to initial treatment but developed anaphylactic symptoms after 6 hours. Her symptoms were resolved after a further dose of adrenaline. Her family threatened legal action as they thought she had not received adequate treatment but withdrew their accusation after the attending physician explained that the woman had suffered a biphasic reaction.
What is the approximate percentage of people who suffer this type of reaction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Anaphylactic reactions are Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions IgE-mediated and can be potentially life-threatening if not treated promptly. There are four well-recognized patterns of anaphylaxis:
1) Uniphasic
2) Biphasic
3) Protracted
4) RefractoryBiphasic reactions occur in 20% of the population, although their mechanism is poorly understood. The symptoms of anaphylaxis recur within 4-6 hours, although they may also recur up to 72 hours later. All patients discharged from the hospital after an anaphylactic shock must:
1) Be warned to return to the hospital immediately if symptoms recur
2) Have a treatment plan in place
3) Have a follow-up appointment
4) Be considered for an adrenaline auto-injector
5) Referred to an allergy clinic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1/L2
Explanation:The spinal cord starts at the foramen magnum, where it is continuous with the medulla oblongata, which is the most caudal portion of the brainstem.
It then extends inferiorly through the vertebral canal. In adults, it usually ends at the level of the first or second lumbar vertebra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32 year old man is brought to ED having been thrown off his motorbike. Following initial resuscitation and ruling out life-threatening injuries, you establish the patient has weakness of hip flexion. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve
Explanation:Flexion of the hip is produced by the iliacus, the psoas major, the sartorius, rectus femoris and the pectineus muscles. The femoral nerve innervates the iliacus, pectineus, sartorius and quadriceps femoris muscles, and supplies skin on the anterior thigh, anteromedial knee and medial leg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following drug classes may cause bronchoconstriction:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-blockers
Explanation:Beta-blockers, including those considered to be cardioselective, should usually be avoided in patients with a history of asthma, bronchospasm or a history of obstructive airways disease. However, when there is no alternative, a cardioselective beta-blocker can be given to these patients with caution and under specialist supervision. In such cases the risk of inducing bronchospasm should be appreciated and appropriate precautions taken.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is feeling unwell following his return from a business trip. He is diagnosed with a vector transmitted disease.
Which of these organisms is commonly spread by vector-borne transmission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:Borrelia burgdorferiis, primarily spread by ticks and lice, is a zoonotic, vector-borne organism that causes Lyme disease.
Neisseria meningitidis and Bordetella pertussis are droplet borne infections (airborne particle > 5 µm)
Vibrio cholerae and Ascaris lumbricoides are spread by the faeco-oral route
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Gastrin primarily acts to perform which of the following functions:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulate gastric acid secretion
Explanation:Gastrin primarily acts to stimulate acid secretion from parietal cells (both directly and indirectly by stimulating release of histamine from ECL cells).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who is investigated for recurrent renal stones is discovered to have a markedly elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level.
Which of the following would stimulate PTH release under normal circumstances? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased plasma calcium concentration
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids. It is the principal controller of free calcium in the body.
PTH is synthesised by and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands that are located immediately behind the thyroid gland.
PTH is released in response to the following stimuli:
Decreased plasma calcium concentration
Increased plasma phosphate concentration (indirectly by binding to plasma calcium and reducing the calcium concentration)
PTH release is inhibited by the following factors:
Normal/increased plasma calcium concentration
Hypomagnesaemia
The main actions of PTH are:
Increases plasma calcium concentration
Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Given a patient with dislocation of the patella, which muscle is the most important to address during rehabilitation to prevent recurrent dislocation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vastus medialis
Explanation:Patellar dislocation is a disabling musculoskeletal disorder which predominantly affects younger people who are engaged in multidirectional physically active pursuits. Conservative (non-operative) treatment is the treatment of choice for FTPD (first time patellar dislocation). Quadriceps strengthening exercises are considered one of the principal management aims for people following FTPD. A United Kingdom (UK) survey of physiotherapy practice has shown that quadriceps strengthening and specific-vastus medialis obliquus (VMO) or distal vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening or recruitment exercises were two of the most frequently used interventions for this population. Specific VM exercises are favoured in some quarters based on the assumption that the VM has an important role in preventing excessive lateral patellar translation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Some patients may complain alcohol-induced nodal pain and pruritus
Explanation:Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presented to the Emergency Department after a fall during a hiking expedition caused severe pain in her left arm and wrist drop. An X-ray revealed a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus, which most likely damaged the radial nerve.
Which one of the following statements best describes the healing process of peripheral nerves?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral nerve fibres regenerate at around 1mm per day
Explanation:Peripheral nerves are nerves that lie outside the brain and spinal cord. Peripheral nerves readily regenerate, while central nervous system axonal injury does not spontaneously regenerate.
If there is damage to the axons of peripheral nerves, the nerves will regenerate at a slow rate of 1 mm per day. The slow regeneration process may lead to muscle atrophy before regeneration is complete.Each peripheral nerve has a single cell body that supplies nutrients to the growing nerve fibre. The cell body does not undergo mitosis; only the axon is regenerated.
Schwann cells of the peripheral nervous system provide support for this process, while the analogous oligodendrocytes of the central nervous system do not. Schwann cells themselves do not cause regeneration. Schwann cells provide myelin for myelinated fibres and surround non-myelinated fibres with their cytoplasm.
If an axon is completely severed, as in the case of amputation, the axonal fibres regenerating from the cell body may never find their original route back to the muscle. Instead, they may form a traumatic neuroma, a painful collection of nerve fibres and myelin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis results in widespread platelet aggregation.
Explanation:DIC is characterised by a widespread inappropriate intravascular deposition of fibrin with consumption of coagulation factors and platelets. This may occur as a consequence of many disorders that release procoagulant material into the circulation or cause widespread endothelial damage or platelet aggregation. Increased activity of thrombin in the circulation overwhelms its normal rate of removal by natural anticoagulants. In addition to causing increased deposition of fibrin in the microcirculation and widespread platelet aggregation to the vessels, intravascular thrombin formation interferes with fibrin polymerisation. Intense fibrinolysis is stimulated by thrombi on vascular walls and the release of fibrin degradation products again interferes with fibrin polymerisation. The combined action of thrombin and plasmin causes depletion of fibrinogen and all coagulation factors, compounded by thrombocytopaenia caused by platelet consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An X-ray of a 24-year-old female hockey player who arrives at the hospital with a left foot injury reveals an avulsion fracture of the fifth metatarsal tuberosity. Which of the following muscles is most likely responsible for the movement of the fractured fragment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibularis brevis
Explanation:An avulsion fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal happens when the ankle is twisted inwards.
When the ankle is twisted inwards a muscle called the fibularis brevis contracts to stop the movement and protect the ligaments of the ankle.
The base of the fifth metatarsal is where this muscle is attached. The group of lateral leg muscles that function to plantarflex the foot includes the fibularis brevis and the fibularis longus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Regarding the tongue, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lymphatic supply of the tongue drains to the jugulo-omohyoid node of the deep cervical chain.
Explanation:All lymphatics from the tongue ultimately drain into the deep cervical chain of nodes along the internal jugular vein, particularly the jugulo-omohyoid lymph node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Pre-oxygenation is done prior to intubation to extend the ‘safe apnoea time’.
Which lung volume or capacity is the most important store of oxygen in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity
Explanation:The administration of oxygen to a patient before intubation is called pre-oxygenation and it helps extend the ‘safe apnoea time’.
The Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after normal tidal expiration. It is the most important store of oxygen in the body. The aim of pre-oxygenation is to replace the nitrogen in the FRC with oxygen.
Apnoea can be tolerated for longer periods before critical hypoxia develops if the FRC is large. Patients with reduced FRC reach critical hypoxia more rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The correct statement regarding the parasympathetic nervous system is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parasympathetic preganglionic neurones run in cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X.
Explanation:The electron transfer system is responsible for most of the energy produced during respiration. The is a system of hydrogen carriers located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Hydrogen is transferred to the electron transfer system via the NADH2 molecules produced during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. As a result, a H+ion gradient is generated across the inner membrane which drives ATP synthase. The final hydrogen acceptor is oxygen and the H+ions and O2 combine to form water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
