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  • Question 1 - Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the...

    Incorrect

    • Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the prostate gland.

      What is the direct blood supply of the prostate?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior vesical artery

      Explanation:

      The prostate gland is primarily supplied by the inferior vesical artery, which branches off from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The inferior vesical artery supplies the base of the bladder, the distal ureters, and the prostate. The branches to the prostate communicate with the corresponding vessels of the opposite side.

      The inferior vesical artery branches into two main arteries:
      1. Urethral artery – supplies the transition zone and is the main arterial supply for the adenomas in BPH
      2. Capsular artery – supplies the glandular tissue

      The venous drainage of the prostate is from the prostatic venous plexus, which drains into the paravertebral veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which among the given options can be used to find out the number...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the given options can be used to find out the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer: (Absolute Risk Reduction) / (Number of people in trial)

      Correct Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

    Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

    ...

    Correct

    • A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

      Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

      Your Answer: Dynamic second-order response

      Explanation:

      The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
      The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

      Zero-order:
      Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

      First-order:
      Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

      Second-order
      Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

      Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?

      Your Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

      Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group

      The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).

      Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a derivative of a rifamycin (other derivatives are rifabutin and rifapentine). It is bactericidal against both dividing and non-dividing mycobacterium and acts by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Thus this drug inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally distributed in a population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There will be approximately equal numbers who have more or less of the characteristic than the mean

      Explanation:

      68% of the population will be found in one standard deviation (SD) above plus one SD below the mean. Two SDs above plus two SDs below the mean will include 95% of the population.

      The median can be greater or less than the mean as it is simply the mid point of the data after the data is arranged. Half the data are above and half below the median .

      The mode is a true score, unlike the mean or the median. It is the most common score or the score obtained from the largest number of subjects in any given data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.

      Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.

      Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - All of the following are responses to massive haemorrhage except which of the...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are responses to massive haemorrhage except which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased cardiac output by increased direct parasympathetic stimulation

      Explanation:

      With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

      1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
      2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
      3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
      4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
      5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

      A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
      6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
      7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

      Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
      8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
      9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
      10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
      Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know...

    Incorrect

    • The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know that they are being observed is termed as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      Hawthorne effect explains the change in any behavioural aspect owing to the awareness that the person is being observed.
      Simpson’s Paradox explains the association developed when the data from several groups is combined to form a single larger group.

      The remaining terms are made up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes

      Explanation:

      Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.

      The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).

      Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.

      Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.

      RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - All of the following are true when describing the autonomic nervous system except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true when describing the autonomic nervous system except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole parasympathetic control

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries Ÿ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In an experimental study, a healthy subject was given one litre of 5%...

    Incorrect

    • In an experimental study, a healthy subject was given one litre of 5% dextrose within a 15-minute period. Which of the following mechanisms is expected to affect the urine output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of arginine vasopressin (AVP) secretion

      Explanation:

      Changes in the osmolality of body fluids (changes as minor as 1% are sufficient) play the most important role in regulating AVP secretion. The receptors that monitor changes in osmolality of body fluids (termed osmoreceptors) are distinct from the cells that synthesize and secrete AVP, and are located in the organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) of the hypothalamus. The osmoreceptors sense changes in body osmolality by either shrinking or swelling. When the effective osmolality of the plasma increases, the osmoreceptors send signals to the AVP synthesizing/secreting cells located in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, and AVP synthesis and secretion are stimulated. Conversely, when the effective osmolality of the plasma is reduced, secretion is inhibited. Because AVP is rapidly degraded in the plasma, circulating levels can be reduced to zero within minutes after secretion is inhibited.

      In this scenario, the osmolality of the plasma will decrease to an estimate of 2.5%, hence inhibition of AVP.

      Stimulation of atrial stretch receptors is incorrect because the increase in plasma volume is still below the threshold for its activation.

      Osmotic diuresis is incorrect because 5% dextrose is isotonic, hence osmotic diuresis is not probable.

      Renin is inhibited when an excess of NaCl in the tubular fluid is sensed by the macula densa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time

      Explanation:

      Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding...

    Incorrect

    • During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding factors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratification

      Explanation:

      During analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. This technique involves sorting out the data into discernible groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

      Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small arterioles

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.

      These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 ”m. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 ”m in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.

      Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.

      Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5

      It can be calculated from the following equation:

      SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The principal innervation of the small muscles of the hand is T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring

      Explanation:

      The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.

      The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.

      Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.

      A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Antomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate) is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide use may precipitate excitement and ataxia

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic agents are a group of drugs that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter called acetylcholine at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system.

      Hyoscine, atropine, and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic which acts at muscarinic receptors with little activity at the nicotinic receptors.

      Hyoscine and atropine are naturally occurring esters. Since Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine, it does not cross the blood brain barrier. Noteworthy, hyoscine, butylbromide also does not cross the blood brain barrier significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon intends to use a nerve integrity monitor thus avoiding neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following nerves is liable to injury in parotidectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Parotidectomy is basically an anatomical dissection. Identification of the facial nerve trunk is essential during parotid gland surgery because facial nerve injury is the most daunting potential complication of parotid gland surgery owing to the close relation between the gland and the extratemporal course of the facial nerve. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the substance of the parotid gland and then gives off five terminal branches:
      From superior to inferior, these are the:
      – Temporal branch supplying the extrinsic ear muscles, occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi
      – Zygomatic branch supplying orbicularis oculi
      – Buccal branch supplying buccinator and the lip muscles
      – Mandibular branch supplying the muscles of the lower lip and chin
      – Cervical branch supplying platysma.

      There are two approaches to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotidectomy—conventional antegrade dissection of the facial nerve, and retrograde dissection. Numerous soft tissue and bony landmarks have been proposed to assist the surgeon in the early identification of this nerve. Most commonly used anatomical landmarks to identify facial nerve trunk are stylomastoid foramen, tympanomastoid suture (TMS), posterior belly of digastric (PBD), tragal pointer (TP), mastoid process and peripheral branches of the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart.
      How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - One of the following sets of arterial blood gases best demonstrates compensated respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following sets of arterial blood gases best demonstrates compensated respiratory acidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L

      Explanation:

      pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L is the correct answer.

      Since the pH is the lower limit of normal, it is compensated despite a raised PaCO2. Retention of bicarbonate ions by the renal system suggests this process is chronic.

      pH=7.24, PaCO2=3.5kPa, PaO2=8.5kPa, HCO3- =18mmol/L represents an acute uncompensated metabolic acidosis

      The remaining stems are degrees of uncompensated respiratory acidosis and therefore incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:

      Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
      K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
      Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
      HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
      BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
      Crea: 301 ”mol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 ”mol/L)
      Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)

      Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 300-313

      Explanation:

      Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.

      Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:

      Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L

      Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.

      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes

      Explanation:

      Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.

      Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.

      The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.

      The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.

      The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.

      Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type A and type B are found in the liver and brain

      Explanation:

      Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.

      They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.

      There are 2 different types:

      Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
      Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be...

    Incorrect

    • Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be filtered out using heat and moisture exchanger (HME) with a typical pore size 0.2 ?m.

      Choose the most appropriate mechanisms of particle capture for most bacteria and viruses.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffusion

      Explanation:

      Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.

      Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 ”m are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
      Red blood cell – 5 ”m
      Lymphocyte – 5-8 ”m
      Viruses – 0.02-0.3 ”m
      Bacteria – 0.5-1 ”m
      Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:

      Sieve:
      The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.

      Interception:
      When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
      Diffusion:

      A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
      By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1”m diameter), this is more common.

      Electrostatic:

      These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.

      Impaction due to inertia:

      When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 26 - A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
      1. pregnancy
      2. diabetes
      3. upper respiratory ailment
      4. GBS
      5. Toxins

      The common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
      1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
      2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
      3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
      4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
      5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
      6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 27 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Incorrect

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 28 - All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.

      Three groups of CCBs include
      1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
      2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
      3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.

      Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.

      Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine

      Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tensile tests are performed on sections of one cylinder in every hundred

      Explanation:

      Medical gas cylinders are made up of molybdenum steel but not cast iron. They are checked and assessed at a regular interval.

      At least one cylinder in each hundred are tested for tensile, pressure, smash, twist and straightening.

      Nitrous Oxide cylinders contain a mixture of liquid and vapour at a pressure of approx. 4500 kPa or 45 Bar. Carbon dioxide cylinder contain gas at the pressure of 5000kPa.

      The filling ratio is the ratio of mass of liquified gas in the cylinder to the mass of water required to fill the cylinder at the temperature of 15ÂșC. In the united kingdom, filling ratio of liquid nitrous oxide is 0.75. The cylinders are usually attached to the anaesthetic machine. As nitrous oxide is an N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist that may reduce the incidence of chronic post-surgical pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.

      Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Statistical Methods (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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