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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.
Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Adrenaline
Correct Answer: Atropine
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.
If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?
Your Answer: Penicillin
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion.
A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute.
Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?Your Answer: 200 mL/minute
Correct Answer: 300 mL/minute
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
RQ=1Fats:
RQ = 0.7Proteins:
Approximately 0.9 RQEthyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.
200/300 = 0.67 RQ
For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.
When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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How data is collected for the Delphi survey technique?
Your Answer: Focus groups
Correct Answer: Questionnaires
Explanation:The Delphi is a group facilitation technique that seeks to obtain consensus on the opinions of `experts’ through a series of structured questionnaires (commonly referred to as rounds). By using successive questionnaires, opinions are considered in a non-adversarial manner, with the current status of the groups’ collective opinion being repeatedly fed back. Studies employing the Delphi make use of individuals who have knowledge of the topic being investigated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?
Your Answer: Is a measure of therapeutic index
Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect
Explanation:An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.
The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.
The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.
The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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All of the following statements about that parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are true except:
Your Answer: Use Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter
Correct Answer: The PNS has nicotinic receptors throughout the system
Explanation:With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.
The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.
There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.
There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.
Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.
The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.
The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreasThe sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.
The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brainThe lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A new study is being carried out on the measurement of a new cardiovascular disease biomarker, and its applications in preoperative screening. The data for this study is expected to be normally distributed.
Which of the following statements is true about normal distributions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value
Explanation:The correct answer is the mean, median and mode of normally distributed data are the same value. This is as a result of the bell shaped curve which is equal on both sides.
The bell-shape indicates that values around the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the values farther away.
In a normal distribution:
1) +/- one standard deviation of the mean accounts for 68% of the data.
2) +/- two standard deviations of the mean accounts for 95% of the data.
3) +/- three standard deviations of the mean accounts for 99.7% of the data. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm to enter the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:
Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.
Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin
Explanation:The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.
0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).
It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.
Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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When compared to unipolar diathermy, which of the following is more specific to bipolar diathermy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a power output of up to 140 joules per second
Explanation:Electrocautery, also known as diathermy, is a technique for coagulation, tissue cutting, and fulguration that uses a high-frequency current to generate heat (cell destruction from dehydration).
The two electrodes in bipolar diathermy are the tips of forceps, and current passes between the tips rather than through the patient. Bipolar diathermy’s power output (40-140 W) is lower than unipolar diathermy’s typical output (400 W). There is no earthing in the bipolar circuit.
A cutting electrode and a indifferent electrode in the form of a metal plate are used in unipolar diathermy. The high-frequency current completes a circuit by passing through the patient from the active electrode to the metal plate. When used correctly, the current density at the indifferent electrode is low, and the patient is unlikely to be burned. Between the patient plate and the earth is placed an isolating capacitor. This has a low impedance to a high frequency current, such as diathermy current, and is used in modern diathermy machines. The capacitor has a high impedance to current at 50 Hz, which protects the patient from electrical shock.
High frequency currents (500 KHz – 1 MHz) are used in both unipolar and bipolar diathermy, which can cause tissue damage and interfere with pacemaker function (less so with bipolar diathermy).
The effect of diathermy is determined by the current density and waveform employed. The current is a pulsed square wave pattern in coagulation mode and a continuous square wave pattern in cutting mode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination rate constant (k).
Drug B has a 2 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.2 elimination rate constant (k).
Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drug A in a single compartment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B
Explanation:The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).
A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.
According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.
CL = Vd x k
For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute
For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute
Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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One of the following sets of arterial blood gases best demonstrates compensated respiratory acidosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L
Explanation:pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L is the correct answer.
Since the pH is the lower limit of normal, it is compensated despite a raised PaCO2. Retention of bicarbonate ions by the renal system suggests this process is chronic.
pH=7.24, PaCO2=3.5kPa, PaO2=8.5kPa, HCO3- =18mmol/L represents an acute uncompensated metabolic acidosis
The remaining stems are degrees of uncompensated respiratory acidosis and therefore incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the best associated option with Kaplan-Meier survival plot?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An estimate of decreasing survival with time after an event.
Explanation:Also known as the “product limit estimate’’, the Kaplan-Meier survival plot is used to estimate the true survival function from the collected data.
Using this plot, probabilities of occurrence of an event at a certain point in time can be computed. The successive probabilities are multiplied by any earlier computed probabilities to get the final estimate. For a given population, the survival probability at any particular time on the plot = (number of subjects living at the start – number of subjects who died)/number of subjects living at the start.
The description of a scatter plot is a graphical representation using Cartesian coordinates to display values for more than two variables for data set. It is used for to assess the relationship between 2 different variables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 14
Incorrect
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How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three
Explanation:The abdominal arteries are divided into 3 branches;
– 3 main unpaired trunks (celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries)
– 6 paired branches
– unpaired median sacral artery.We can group the abdominal aorta as follows;
-Ventral which includes: Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
-Lateral: Inferior phrenic, middle suprarenal, renal and gonadal arteries
-Dorsal: Lumbar and median sacral arteries
-Terminal : Right and left common iliac arteriesThe celiac trunk (L1) takes blood the foregut and its found posterior to the stomach. The unpaired superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the mid-gut.
The paired renal arteries form the inferior suprarenal arteries. The renal arteries arise around L1/L2 and takes blood to either side of the kidneys.
The median sacral artery supplies blood to the lumbar vertebrae the L4 and L5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he requires a urethral catheter.
Where does resistance first occur during the insertion of a catheter?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Membranous urethra
Explanation:The membranous urethra is the shortest part of the urethra and the least dilatable part of it.
This is as a result of it being surrounded by the external urethral sphincter which is made up of striated muscle and controls voluntary urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the following observations:
Cardiac output 2.0 L/min
Blood pressure 80/60 mmHg
CVP 20 mmHg
SpO2 91% on 4 L/min oxygen
What is the most logical physiological explanation for these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biventricular failure
Explanation:The occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery causes anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). It has the worst prognosis of all the infarct locations due to its larger infarct size. It has a higher rate of total mortality (27 percent versus 11 percent), heart failure (41 percent versus 15 percent), and a lower ejection fraction on admission than an inferior myocardial infarction (38 percent versus 55 percent ).
The LAD artery supplies the majority of the interventricular septum, as well as the anterior, lateral, and apical walls of the left ventricle, as well as the majority of the right and left bundle branches and the bicuspid valve’s anterior papillary muscle (left ventricle).
The left or right ventricle’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in each chamber at the end of diastole before systole. Preload is synonymous with the EDV.
120 mL is a typical left ventricular EDV (range 65-240 mL). The EDV of the right ventricle in a typical range is (100-160 mL).
With an ejection fraction (EF) of less than 45 percent, the patient is most likely suffering from systolic dysfunction. Increases in right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures and volumes are likely with a reduced EF because the ventricles are not adequately emptied. The left atrium and the pulmonary vasculature are affected by the increased pressures on the left side of the heart.
By causing an imbalance of the Starling forces acting across the capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation favours the development of pulmonary oedema. With cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, capillary permeability is likely to remain unchanged.
Biventricular failure will result as a result of the pressure changes being transmitted to the right side of the circulation. The patient’s systemic vascular resistance is likely to be elevated as well, but it is not the most likely cause of his symptoms. The patient is suffering from cardiogenic shock as a result of biventricular failure. The patient has low cardiac output and is hypotensive. Right ventricular filling pressures are elevated, indicating right ventricular dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.
For temporal arteritis, he takes 40 mg prednisolone orally in divided doses. His prescription chart will need to be adjusted to reflect his inability to take oral medications.
What is the equivalent dose of intravenous hydrocortisone to 40 mg oral prednisolone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 160 mg
Explanation:Prednisolone 5 mg is the same as 20 mg hydrocortisone.
Prednisolone 40 mg is the same as 8 x 20 mg or 160 mg of prednisolone.
Mineralocorticoid effects and variations in action duration are not taken into account in these comparisons.
5 mg of prednisolone is the same as Dexamethasone 750 mcg, Hydrocortisone 20 mg, Methylprednisolone 4 mg, and Cortisone acetate 25 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intervertebral foramen
Explanation:The vertebral artery originates from the subclavian artery and ascends through the neck in the transverse foramen of the C1-C6 vertebrae. C2 vertebra is called the axis vertebra. A part of the vertebral artery lies in a groove on the upper surface of the atlas’s (C1) posterior arch. It enters the vertebral canal below the inferior border of the posterior atlantooccipital membrane. The vertebral arteries then enter the skull via the foramen magnum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched
Explanation:The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.
A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.
Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.
A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles's law
Explanation:Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.
Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.
According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.
Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein binding
Explanation:When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to ?1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.
The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.
Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A patient under brachial plexus regional block complains of pain under the cuff after the torniquet is inflated.
Which nerve was most probably 'missed' by the local anaesthetic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intercostobrachial nerve
Explanation:The area described in the question is supplied by the intercostobrachial nerve, which provides sensory innervation to the portions of the axilla, tail of the breast, lateral chest wall and medial side of the arm.
It is a common for it to be ‘missed’ during administration of local anaesthesia because of its very superficial anatomic course. It may be anesthetized by giving an analgesia from the upper border of the biceps at the anterior axillary fold, to the margin of the triceps by the axillary floor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following options is correct regarding the coagulation pathway?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tissue factor released by damaged tissue initiates the extrinsic pathway
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is considered as the main pathway of coagulation cascade.
Heparin is known to inhibit the activation of coagulation factors 2,9,10, and 11.
The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways meet at the activation of coagulation factor 10.
Fibrinogen is converted into Fibrin in the presence of Thrombin. Plasminogen is converted into plasmin during fibrinolysis to breakdown fibrin clot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.
Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.
Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature
Explanation:A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.
Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.
Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves an energy substrate and oxygen. For a patient, the respiratory quotient is calculated as 0.7.
Which of the following energy substrate combinations is the most likely in this patient's diet?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low carbohydrate, high fat and low protein
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the proportion of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed per unit of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars – RQ = 1
Fats – RQ = 0.7
Proteins – RQ is 0.9
Ethyl alcohol – RQ = 0.67 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.
Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.
The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.
The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.
Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.
Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his groin area. He is diagnosed with an indirect inguinal hernia and is scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. During the repair, the surgeon sees several structures surrounding the inguinal canal.
Name the structure that forms the anterior borders of the inguinal canal.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique
Explanation:The inguinal canal is the pathway leading from the wall of the abdomen to the external genitalia.
The borders of the inguinal canal are:
Anterior wall: formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique, supported by the internal oblique muscle laterally.
Posterior wall: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, and medially by the conjoint tendon
Roof: formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles
Floor: formed by the inguinal ligament and supported medially by the lacunar ligament
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms
Explanation:Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O
The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.
The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide will reduce hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
Explanation:Hypoxic Pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflects the constriction of small pulmonary arteries in response to hypoxic alveoli (.i.e.; PO2 below 80-100mmHg or 11-13kPa).
These blood vessels become independent of the nerve stimulus, when blood with a high PO2 flows through the lung which contains a low alveolar PO2.
Thus a low PO2 within the alveoli has been shown to impact on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) more than a low PO2 within the blood.
HPV results in the blood flow being directed away from poorly ventilated areas of the lung and helps to reduce the ventilation/perfusion mismatch (not increase).
In animals, volatile anaesthetic agents can diminish HPV, while in adults, the evidence proves less persuading, in spite of the fact that it certainly doesn’t strengthen the effects.
HPV response will be suppressed by 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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