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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old student presents with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. She says she...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. She says she has had severe headaches over the last few weeks for which she has been taking paracetamol. What is the most likely cause of her jaundice?

      Your Answer: Crigler-Najjar syndrome

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a mild liver disorder in which the liver does not properly process bilirubin. Many people never have symptoms. Occasionally a slight yellowish colour of the skin or whites of the eyes may occur. Other possible symptoms include feeling tired, weakness, and abdominal pain.
      The enzymes that are defective in Gilberts – UDP glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A1 (UGT1A1) – are also responsible for some of the liver’s ability to detoxify certain drugs. While paracetamol (acetaminophen) is not metabolized by UGT1A1,[10] it is metabolized by one of the other enzymes also deficient in some people with Gilberts. Therefore a subset of people with Gilberts may have an increased risk of paracetamol toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old male has presented to his doctor with hypertension. Upon examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male has presented to his doctor with hypertension. Upon examination, he is found to have palpable kidneys. An abdominal ultrasound shows enlarged cystic kidneys on both sides. From the list of options, choose the most likely condition present in this patient.

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is adult polycystic kidneys. This disease is associated with the following: valvular heart abnormalities, incompetence, and aneurysms of the cerebral circulation. It can also be associated with excessive erythropoietin production and polycythaemia. There is an increased incidence of aortic incompetence, and mitral valve prolapse occurs in 25 per cent of patients. Hepatic cysts can also occur, and present in 70 per cent of patients – these can also involve the pancreas in 10 per cent of patients and the spleen. Cerebral berry aneurysms are present in around 5-8 per cent of patients, but familial clustering is also observed. That is if there is a family history, over 20 per cent of patients will also have an aneurysm. Diverticular disease is also thought to be increased in patients with polycystic kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 44-year-old man complains of unceasing chest pain which is aggravated by inspiration...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man complains of unceasing chest pain which is aggravated by inspiration four weeks after his MI. His temperature is 37.5C and ESR is 45mm/h. What is the single most likely explanation for the abnormal investigations

      Your Answer: Dressler syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler syndrome signs and symptoms include pericarditis, low-grade fever, and pleuritic chest pain. It commonly occurs two to five weeks following the initial event or for as long as three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:
      When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
      Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen)  enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.

      Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      211.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy presented with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy presented with a left sided painful calf swelling. An ultrasound scan revealed deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of her left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Initiate and then continue treatment with heparin until delivery

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. She should be given heparin throughout her pregnancy. It can be converted to warfarin if necessary after the delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      200.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old male has presented at the hospital with an inoperable carcinoma and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male has presented at the hospital with an inoperable carcinoma and pain in his back. His pain has since been controlled well with morphine, but he soon starts vomiting. Morphine administration was ceased, and he was started on both fentanyl patches and metoclopramide. He soon develops stiffness in his neck and a fever. From the list of options, choose the cause of his symptoms.

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide side-effects are consistent with the patient’s symptoms: fever and stiffness of the neck. The other medications are not consistent with this symptom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      124.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 53-year-old female, longstanding case of rheumatoid arthritis comes for a review. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old female, longstanding case of rheumatoid arthritis comes for a review. Which of the following features are commonly associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Correct Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joint involvement in the hands

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a polyarthritis that results in symmetrical pain and swelling of the affected joints (also at rest). It particularly affects the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCPJs) and proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPJs), not the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).
      Ulcerative colitis and IBD are associated with seronegative arthritides, not RA. The condition can also cause various extra-articular manifestations such as ocular symptoms, rheumatoid nodules and pulmonary fibrosis. Scleritis, episcleritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca are more common than uveitis. Early intervention with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) plays a decisive role in successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      112.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old lung cancer patient presents with diminished reflexes, retention of urine, postural...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old lung cancer patient presents with diminished reflexes, retention of urine, postural hypotension and sluggish pupillary reaction. What is the most likely explanation for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic syndromes are more common in patients with lung cancer. Signs and symptoms include inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, finger clubbing, hypercoagulability and Eaton-Lambert syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      118
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary modifications and weight reduction. He needs to be started on an oral hypoglycemic agent. Which among the following statements regarding oral hypoglycaemic agents is true?

      Your Answer: Acarbose inhibits ?-glucosidase

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      110.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 33-year-old lady presented with complaints of an erythematous rash over her shins,...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old lady presented with complaints of an erythematous rash over her shins, along with arthritis and painful swollen knees. What will be the single most likely finding on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Lofgren’s syndrome is characterised by a triad of erythema nodosum, arthritis and bilateral lymphadenopathy. It is a variant of sarcoidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      384.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride.
      The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?

      Your Answer: Dehydroepiandrosterone

      Correct Answer: Dihydrotestosterone

      Explanation:

      Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.
      Finasteride is a 5?-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

      DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly.

      Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man with a 6 month history of progressive weakness of both...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a 6 month history of progressive weakness of both lower limbs, complains of lethargy and of difficulties climbing stairs. He also claims he's experienced muscle loss in his lower limbs. History reveals type 2 diabetes mellitus and heavy alcohol use for the last 4 years. Clinical examination reveals marked loss of fine touch and proprioception. The distribution is in a stocking manner and bilateral. However, no evidence of ataxia is present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pellagra

      Correct Answer: Dry beriberi

      Explanation:

      Hypovitaminosis B1, consistent with dry beriberi is crucially a treatable condition, although sometimes with incomplete recovery, but it is probably under-recognized yet increasingly common given increasing levels of alcohol abuse in the western world. Dry beriberi or ‘acute nutritional polyneuropathy’ is considered to be rare in the western world. Rapid deterioration can occur, typically with weakness, paraesthesia and neuropathic pain. Striking motor nerve involvement can occur, mimicking Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). In the context of increasing alcohol abuse in the western world, it is possible that alcoholic neuropathy associated with abrupt deterioration due to concomitant nutritional hypovitaminosis B1 may be seen increasingly often.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      74.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old male with a scaphoid fracture came to the clinic after 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male with a scaphoid fracture came to the clinic after 2 weeks of applying the scaphoid cast. After removing the cast he had difficulty moving his thumb, index and middle fingers. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Release of common flexor sheath

      Correct Answer: Release of flexor retinaculum

      Explanation:

      This patient has carpal tunnel syndrome which involves the median nerve. The treatment is releasing of the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old male presented with sudden onset chest pain and difficulty in breathing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presented with sudden onset chest pain and difficulty in breathing for the past 2 hours. On examination he had bilateral ankle swelling. Investigations revealed proteinuria of 6g/d. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Reduced fibrinogen concentration

      Correct Answer: Reduced antithrombin III activity

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a thromboembolic event most probably secondary to nephrotic syndrome (nephrotic-range proteinuria). Hypercoagulability is due to urinary loss of anticoagulant proteins, such as antithrombin III and plasminogen and an increase in clotting factors, especially factors I, VII, VIII, and X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?

      Your Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally may be affected by co-administration of other drugs

      Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination

      Explanation:

      Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.
      The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation.
      Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose.

      Other options are true:
      By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.
      Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine.
      Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic at 36 weeks gestation with worsening shortness of breath.
      Which of the following is the most accurate statements regarding her condition?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine is contraindicated in pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Risk of maternal mortality in patients with pulmonary hypertension is 30%

      Explanation:

      Historically, high rates of maternal and fetal death have been reported for pregnant women with pulmonary hypertension (30-56% and 11-28%, respectively). The causes of poor maternal outcomes are varied and include risk of death from right heart failure and stroke from intracardiac shunting. Furthermore, there is a high peri-/post-partum risk due to haemodynamic stress, bleeding complications and the use of general anaesthesia, which can all lead to right heart failure.
      The most common risk to the foetus is death, with premature birth and growth retardation being reported in successfully delivered children.
      CXR is not contraindicated in pregnancy. D-dimers are not used as a diagnostic aid as they are almost always elevated in pregnancy. Nifedipine, although contraindicated in pregnant women may be used judiciously if the need arises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - From the following options, choose the one which is not a cause of...

    Incorrect

    • From the following options, choose the one which is not a cause of liver cirrhosis.

      Your Answer: Galactosaemia

      Correct Answer: Schistosomiasis

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis is a cause of portal hypertension and periportal fibrosis – it is, however, not a cause of cirrhosis. The main causes of cirrhosis include: alcohol and hepatitis B, C, and D. Autoimmune causes include: both primary and secondary biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hepatitis. There are a number of inherited conditions which cause cirrhosis, such as hereditary hemochromatosis, Wilson’s disease, Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency, galactosaemia glycogen storage disease, and cystic fibrosis. Additionally, there are also vascular causes, such as hepatic venous congestion, Budd-Chiari syndrome, and veno-occlusive disease. Intestinal bypass surgery has also been implicated as a causative factor for cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 85-year-old elderly male presents with complaint of worsening breathlessness over the last...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old elderly male presents with complaint of worsening breathlessness over the last 2 years. He has a longstanding history of COPD and currently takes salbutamol, ipratropium, salmeterol, beclomethasone and theophylline. FEV1 comes out to be less than 30%. What will be the most suitable next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Assessment for long term O2 therapy

      Explanation:

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the cornerstone mode of treatment in patients with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) associated with resting hypoxaemia. When appropriately prescribed and correctly used, LTOT has clearly been shown to improve survival in hypoxemic COPD patients. Requirements to proceed to LTOT is the patient should be stable and on appropriate optimum therapy (as in given case) and having stopped smoking tobacco. The patient should be shown to have a PaO2 of less than 7.3 kPa and/or a PaCO2 of greater than 6 kPa on two occasions at least 3 weeks apart. FEV1 should be less than 1.5 litres, and there should be a less than 15% improvement in FEV1 after bronchodilators. Patients with a PaO2 between 7.3 and 8 kPa who have polycythaemia, right heart failure or pulmonary hypertension may benefit from LTOT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 53-year-old woman presents with a painless lump in the left breast associated...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with a painless lump in the left breast associated with nipple discharge. The skin over the lump has an orange peel skin appearance. According to the patient, the lump has increased in size, with time.

      Diagnosis of breast cancer is strongly suspected. Which of the following would be most useful in monitoring the prognosis of breast cancer, in this case?

      Your Answer: Lymph node metastases

      Explanation:

      The prognosis of breast cancer depends chiefly on the extent of nodal metastases.

      The breast cancer TNM staging system is the most common way that doctors use to stage breast cancer. TNM stands for Tumour, Node, Metastasis. The results are combined to determine the stage of cancer for each person. There are five stages: stage 0 (zero), which is non-invasive ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), and stages I through IV (1 through 4), which are used for invasive breast cancer.

      Staging can be clinical or pathological. Clinical staging is based on the results of tests done before surgery, which may include physical examinations, mammogram, ultrasound, and MRI scans. Pathologic staging is based on what is found during surgery to remove breast tissue and lymph nodes. In general, pathological staging provides the most information to determine a patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: Androgen receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:

      Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.

      Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.

      Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Arrange the following opioid analgesics in order of increasing potency. ...

    Incorrect

    • Arrange the following opioid analgesics in order of increasing potency.

      Your Answer: Codeine, oxycodone, morphine, diamorphine

      Correct Answer: Codeine, morphine, oxycodone, diamorphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid analgesics produce pain relief by attaching to the opioid receptors in the brain. Out of these, codeine is the least potent and diamorphine the most potent. Codeine is used to relieve mild to moderate pain. Morphine is a stronger analgesic used to treat pain like that experienced after surgery or injury. Oxycodone acts like the endorphins in the brain and reduces pain sensation. It is more potent than codeine and morphine and is used for relieving moderate to severe forms of pain. Among the listed, diamorphine is the most potent opioid analgesic. It is administered intravenously, subcutaneously, or intramuscularly to treat severe pain after surgery or in terminally-ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in her neck and under her arms, weight loss, vomiting, and low mood. She is investigated and is found to have several areas of suspicious lymphadenopathy including in the neck, both axillae, and mediastinum. She also has multiple lesions in her liver which are confirmed to be the manifestations of Hodgkin lymphoma after biopsy.

      Which stage of the disease is the patient currently at?

      Your Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      The patient is on stage IV according to the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). The disease has spread beyond the lymph nodes into the liver (involvement of extra lymphatic organ).

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
      Stage
      I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)

      II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)

      III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)

      IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites

      Suffix
      A: No B symptoms

      B: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury.
    On examination there...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury.
      On examination there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, and weakness of extension of the big toe. He has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of his foot surrounding the base of his big toe. Other examination is within normal limits.
      Where is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula

      Explanation:

      Peroneal nerve injury is also known as foot drop. The common peroneal nerve supplies the ankle and toe extensor muscle groups as well as sensation over the dorsum of the foot; thus, there is also loss of sensation in these cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?

      Your Answer: HIV is an RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked, drowsy and confused.
      He is known to be type-2 diabetic maintained on metformin.
      Blood tests reveal a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 24 mmol/l. Ketones are not significantly elevated and random blood glucose was 8.7 mmol/l.
      What is the mainstay of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Rehydration

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is occasionally responsible for metabolic acidosis in diabetics. It may occur in the presence of normal blood levels of the ketone bodies, and such cases are often described as having non-ketotic diabetic acidosis.
      It is most commonly associated with tissue hypoperfusion and states of acute circulatory failure.
      Appropriate measures include treatment of shock, restoration of circulating fluid volume, improved cardiac function, identification of sepsis source, early antimicrobial intervention, and resection of any potential ischemic regions. Reassessment of lactate levels for clearance assists ongoing medical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      146.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this is diagnosed as optic neuritis.
      Which one of the following statements would be seen in an afferent pupillary defect?

      Your Answer: Pupil of affected eye larger than the unaffected eye

      Correct Answer: Accommodation response is unaffected

      Explanation:

      Afferent pupillary defect is simply a delayed pupillary response to light. Accommodation is otherwise unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old male presented with mild ascites due to alcoholic cirrhosis. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presented with mild ascites due to alcoholic cirrhosis. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely present?

      Your Answer: Reduced urinary sodium excretion

      Explanation:

      Patients with cirrhosis are mostly hyponatraemic due to increased water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      70.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A trial of bladder retraining is unsuccessful. It is therefore decided to use a muscarinic antagonist. Which one of the following medications is an example of a muscarinic antagonist?

      Your Answer: Teriparatide

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      A muscarinic receptor antagonist (MRA) is a type of anticholinergic agent that blocks the activity of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. There are six antimuscarinic drugs currently marketed for the treatment of urge incontinence: oxybutynin, tolterodine, propiverine, trospium, darifenacin, and solifenacin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres

      Explanation:

      A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.

      In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.

      A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.

      Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation profile is normal. His CBC: Hb 11.8 TLC 7.2*10^9 Plt 286*10^9. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP). This patient has a characteristic rash and the labs are consistent with this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      113.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Hepatobiliary System (0/1) 0%
Renal System (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular System (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (0/2) 0%
Respiratory System (3/4) 75%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (2/3) 67%
Men's Health (0/1) 0%
Nervous System (1/4) 25%
Gastrointestinal System (1/2) 50%
Haematology & Oncology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed