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  • Question 1 - Regarding the anatomical relations of the first rib, one of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the anatomical relations of the first rib, one of the following is right

      Your Answer: The upper trunk of the brachial plexus grooves the upper surface

      Correct Answer: The subclavius muscle attaches to the upper surface

      Explanation:

      The first rib is an atypical rib. It is short, wide, and flattened and lies in an oblique plane.

      It has a small scalene tubercle on its medial border which marks the point of attachment of scalenus anterior. The lower surface lies on the pleura and is smooth.

      The tubercle on the upper surface separates an anterior groove for the subclavian vein and a posterior groove for the subclavian artery and lower trunk of the brachial plexus.

      Scalenus medius is attached to a roughened area posterior to the groove for the subclavian artery.

      The upper surface gives attachment anteriorly to the subclavius muscle and costoclavicular ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block.

      Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: 11 mL lidocaine 2%

      Correct Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%

      Explanation:

      Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

      Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

      Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

      There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
      200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

      While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

      With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The parameter that is indirectly measured from a blood gas analysis is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The parameter that is indirectly measured from a blood gas analysis is?

      Your Answer: Temperature

      Correct Answer: Standard bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Automated blood gas analysers are commonly used to analyse blood gas samples, and they measure specific components of the arterial blood gas sample, whether directly or indirectly.

      The following are the components of arterial blood gas:

      pH = measured (directly determined) acid-base balance of the blood

      PaO2 = measured partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

      PaCO2 = measured partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

      HCO3 = calculated (indirectly determined) concentration of bicarbonate in arterial blood

      Base excess/deficit = calculated relative excess or deficit of base in arterial blood

      SaO2 = calculated arterial oxygen saturation unless a co-oximetry is obtained, in which case it is measured

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      782.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best...

    Incorrect

    • Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?

      Your Answer: Is accurate even in rhythm disturbances

      Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart

      Explanation:

      Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.

      The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.

      The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?

      Your Answer: Dehydronorketamine

      Correct Answer: (S)-ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.

      The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL.

      Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.

      Your Answer: 240 ml/minute

      Correct Answer: 125 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.

      Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.

      It is represented mathematically as:
      Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
      where,
      U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
      V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
      P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)

      Therefore, in this case:
      CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min
      0.1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding. The 'Pringle manoeuvre is performed to stop the bleeding where the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct are clamped. These structures form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen.

      Which of the following vessels also contributes to the boundary of this region?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow or aditus to the lesser sac) is found behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. A short, 3 cm slit serves as the entrance to the lesser sac from the greater sac.

      The epiploic foramen has the following boundaries:
      Anteriorly: hepatoduodenal ligament, the bile duct (anteriorly on the right), the hepatic artery (anteriorly on the left), and the portal vein (posteriorly) together with nerves and lymphatics
      Superiorly: the peritoneum of the posterior layer of the hepatoduodenal ligament runs over the caudate process of the liver
      Posteriorly: inferior vena cava
      Floor: upper border of the first part of the duodenum
      The anterior and posterior walls of the foramen are normally
      apposed, which partly explains why patients can develop large fluid
      collections isolated to the greater or lesser sac

      Rapid control of the hepatic artery and portal vein can be obtained by compression of the free edge of the lesser omentum (a ‘Pringle’ manoeuvre), which is a potentially useful technique in liver trauma and surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

      Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small arterioles

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.

      These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.

      Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.

      Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5

      It can be calculated from the following equation:

      SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that...

    Incorrect

    • Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that doesn’t involve mammography which is in contrast to the prevailing standard. The initial numbers look promising and are indicating that the new testing method is better able to pick up early stage cancer. There, however, is not substantial difference in survival rates.

      Which of the following term can be used to describe this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.

      When information gathering is ill suited with respect to time i.e. collecting the data regarding a fatal disease many years after the death of its patients, it is termed as Late – look bias.

      The case in point is an instance of lead time bias when upon comparing two tests, one is able to detect the condition earlier than the other but the overall outcome doesn’t change. There is a possibility that this will make the survival rates for the newer test look more promising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood...

    Incorrect

    • A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Explanation:

      Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

      There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

      Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease.

      Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 95.40%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.

      Properties of the Normal distribution

      symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median

      68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean

      95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean

      99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

      Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
      the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.

      SD = square root (variance)

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the first time in the emergency department with acute abdominal pain in the epigastric region.

      On examination, the man is sweating and has a high-grade fever. His heart rate is 140/min and a BP of 92/59 mmHg.

      The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a complication you are most likely to see in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions

      Explanation:

      Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.

      Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.

      Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.

      Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced...

    Incorrect

    • Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.

      Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

      Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

      The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
      Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
      Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
      Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
      Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through...

    Incorrect

    • You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins.

      Which of the following types of study could that have been?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4

      Explanation:

      In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.

      During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.

      Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.

      Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
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  • Question 15 - The following statements concern the sensory innervation of the nasal passage: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements concern the sensory innervation of the nasal passage:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The walls of the anterior nasal passage are supplied by the anterior ethmoidal branch of the nasociliary nerve, and the floor is innervated by the superior dental nerve (not the sphenopalatine nerves).

      The walls and floor of the posterior nasal passage are innervated by the long and short sphenopalatine nerves and the great palatine nerve (not the superior dental nerves and the nasociliary nerve).

      The vestibule is innervated by small branches of the infraorbital branch of the maxillary nerve.

      The nasopharynx is innervated by the sensory branches of the trigeminal nerve (not the great palatine nerve).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 16 - At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behind and below the medial ankle

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial artery originates from the popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa. It passes posterior to the popliteus muscle to pierce the soleus muscle. It descends between the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles.

      The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the posterior compartment of the lower limb. The artery can be palpated posterior to the medial malleolus.

      There are 4 main pulse points for the lower limb:

      1. Femoral pulse 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point
      2. Popliteal partially flexed knee to loosen the popliteal fascia
      3. Posterior tibial behind and below the medial ankle
      4. Dorsal pedis dorsum of the foot over the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 18 - Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes

      Explanation:

      Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.

      The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).

      Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.

      Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.

      RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 19 - A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE...

    Incorrect

    • A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE levels in adults was conducted. Presuming that the curve follows a normal distribution, what is the percentage of individuals having IgE levels greater than 2 standard deviations from mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      Since the data is normally distributed, 95.4% of the values lie with in 2 standard deviations from mean. The rest of the 4.6% are distributed symmetrically outside of that range which means 2.3% of the values lie above 2 standard deviations of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is increased in the maternal plasma in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      ACTH production is stimulated through the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamic nuclei.

      ACTH secretion has a circadian rhythm. A high level of cortisol in the body stops its production. ACTH is secreted maximally in the morning and concentrations are lowest at midnight.

      ACTH can be expressed in the placenta, the pituitary and other tissues.

      Conditions where ACTH concentrations rise include: stress, disease and pregnancy.

      Glucocorticoids (not mineralocorticoids – aldosterone) switch off ACTH production through a negative feedback loop .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 22 - What structure lies deepest within the popliteal fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structure lies deepest within the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Popliteal artery

      Explanation:

      The popliteal fossa is the shallow, diamond-shaped depression located in the back of the knee joint.

      The structures that lie within in from superficial to deep are:

      The tibial and common fibular nerve: Most superficial. They arise from the sciatic nerve.
      The popliteal vein
      The popliteal artery: Lies deepest. It arises from the femoral artery

      Boundaries of the popliteal fossa:

      Laterally
      Biceps femoris above, lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris below

      Medially
      Semimembranosus and semitendinosus above, medial head of gastrocnemius below

      Floor
      Popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of knee joint and popliteus muscle

      Roof
      Superficial and deep fascia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 23 - A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.

      What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 mL

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

      The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

      A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

      The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in casualty, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The intern wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in the patients ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.

      The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.

      Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
      Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
      Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangle

      Regarding the other options:
      The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
      The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
      The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 25 - About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is excreted in the urine

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) creates a complex by binding to antithrombin. This complex binds with and inactivates factor Xa.

      There is less risk of bleeding with LMWH because it binds less to platelets, endothelium and von Willebrand factor.

      LMW binds Xa more readily. The shorter chains are less likely to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.

      There is need for monitoring in renal impairment because LMHW is excreted in the urine (and partly by hepatic metabolism)

      LMWH have been shown to be as efficacious as unfractionated heparin. It is also safer and have improved inpatient stay and reduced hospital cost.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.

      Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)

      Explanation:

      Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
      Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The terminal part of the thoracic duct crosses anterior to it to insert into the right subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.

      It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
      It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.

      The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.

      The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 28 - A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and has gone into a cardiogenic shock. As part of her treatment, she is prescribed a dobutamine infusion and placed on full haemodynamic monitoring.

      Over the next four days, her measurement are:

      Day1 Day2 Day3 Day4
      Infusion rate of dobutamine (mcg/kg/min): 5 10 15 25
      Cardiac output (L/min): 3.4 3.2 3.1 3.2
      Pulse rate (beats/min): 110 112 105 100
      Blood pressure (mmHg): 80/60 75/61 83/60 81/56

      Haemodynamic changes are noted as a result of response to treatment. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolerance by down-regulation of beta1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Tachyphylaxis is the swiftly declining response to successive drug doses which vastly reduces its effectiveness in a short space of time, mostly as a result of an acute consumption of neurotransmitters.

      Tolerance or desensitisation is the slow decline in a person’s reaction to a drug due to continued use. It requires a longer time span than tachyphylaxis, usually over days or weeks.

      Down- regulation is a reduction in the amount of receptors available on target cells which decreases the affinity of the agent to the cells. For this to occur, the down-regulation of receptors must occur at a rate faster than receptor synthesis. This down-regulation often occurs with beta1 receptors due to:

      1) The transportation or receptors from the cell surface to the interior of the cell

      2) Degradation of receptors occurring over time.

      In this case, dobutamine is prescribed to treat cardiogenic shock. It is able to function by binding to beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase the contraction of the heart, thereby improving cardiac output. It also binds to beta2- and alpha1-adrenergic receptors to balance out the effects produced by binding to beta1 receptors and reduce the risk of system vasculature responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 29 - A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer...

    Incorrect

    • A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer can be used to check blood pressure. The SI units of length(mm) are used to measure pressure.

      Why is pressure expressed in millimetres of mercury (mmHg)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to length of the mercury column and is variable

      Explanation:

      A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.

      Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A). 

      Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
      Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
      Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
      Pressure is proportional to L

      The numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.

      The length is proportional to the applied pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
      Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Pathophysiology (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
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