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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?

      Your Answer: Ig

      Explanation:

      After the exposure to chickenpox while pregnant, even if the patient is negative for antibodies she requires immunoglobulin to prevent further issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was treated with radiotherapy which led to complete remission.

      What is the most likely long-term risk of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Secondary cancer

      Explanation:

      The major delayed problem with radiotherapy is the development of secondary cancers. This risk begins to appear ten years after therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 77-year-old mail carrier presents to the emergency department with severe flinging movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old mail carrier presents to the emergency department with severe flinging movements of his right arm. Where would the causative lesion be located?

      Your Answer: Left subthalamic nucleus

      Correct Answer: Right subthalamic nucleus

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus is a movement disorder which manifests as unilateral involuntary flinging movements of the proximal upper limbs. The lesion is located in the ipsilateral subthalamic nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old female presented with difficulty in breathing. What is the clinical sign...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female presented with difficulty in breathing. What is the clinical sign that will indicate the presence of established pulmonary hypertension?

      Your Answer: Single loud second heart sound

      Correct Answer: Raised jugular venous pressure

      Explanation:

      A prominent A wave is observed in the jugular venous pulse and this indicates the presence of established pulmonary hypertension. In addition the pulmonic component of the second heart sound (P2) may be increased and the P2 may demonstrate fixed or paradoxical splitting. The signs of right ventricular failure include a high-pitched systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation, hepatomegaly, a pulsatile liver, ascites, and peripheral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's...

    Correct

    • From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's syndrome of an adult?

      Your Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      The main cardiovascular manifestations associated with Marfan’s syndrome are aortic dilatation and mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and admits to a dislike of high fibre foods. The pain has been grumbling for the past couple of weeks and is partially relieved by defecation. He has suffered intermittent diarrhoea.
       
      Blood testing reveals a neutrophilia, and there is also a microcytic anaemia. Barium enema shows multiple diverticula, more marked on the left-hand side of the colon.
       
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Given that he has diverticula in the clinical scenario combined with his presenting symptoms, it is likely that he has diverticular disease. A low fibre diet would support this diagnosis. Acute diverticulitis would require treatment with antibiotics. Depending on the severity (Hinchey classification) would determine if he needs oral or IV antibiotics, hospital admission or outpatient treatment. Sometimes abscesses or micro perforations occur, which typical require drainage and possibly surgical intervention. Diverticular disease is clearly a better answer than other possible answer choices, simply based on the symptoms presented in the prompt (and mention of low fibre).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula.

      Which of the following defines his eye condition?

      Your Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
      The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
      1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
      2. Increased vascular permeability.
      3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
      4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
      5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
      The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.

      Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old female was diagnosed with a benign ovarian mass on her right...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female was diagnosed with a benign ovarian mass on her right side. She complained of inner thigh pain on her right side. Which of the following nerves is responsible for her inner thigh pain?

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The obturator nerve is compressed due to the ovarian mass, this causes pain in the inner thigh because it innervates this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      66.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)

      Explanation:

      The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest pain for the past 2 hours. She has a family history of premature coronary artery disease. Her husband passed away recently due to prostate cancer. On examination her blood pressure was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 80 bpm. Her ECG showed ST segment elevation and her troponin was slightly elevated. Emergency angiogram revealed slight wall irregularities with no luminal obstruction. Cardiovascular MR showed an apical ballooning of the myocardium resembling an octopus pot. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the ST segment elevation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Causes for ST segment elevation other than myocardial infarction
      Natural variants
      -Early repolarization
      -Left ventricular hypertrophy and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      -Left bundle branch block
      Artefacts
      -Leads mispositioning
      -Electrical cardioversion
      Cardiovascular diseases
      -Pericarditis/ Myocarditis
      -Aortic dissection
      -Prinzmetal’s angina
      -Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy
      -Brugada Syndrome and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy/dysplasia
      Pulmonary diseases
      -Pulmonary thromboembolism
      -Pneumothorax
      -Atelectasis and pulmonary metastases
      Gastrointestinal diseases
      -Acute pancreatitis
      -Acute cholecystitis
      Other conditions
      -Hyperkalaemia
      -Drug induced ST segment elevation (e.g. – clozapine)
      -Haemorrhagic cerebrovascular disease

      Coronary artery disease and myocardial infarction can be excluded with a negative angiogram and a slightly elevated troponin. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can be excluded with cardiovascular MR findings. Left ventricular aneurysm usually occurs following a myocardial infarction, but there is no positive history for that. The characteristic findings on cardiovascular MR confirms the diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (2/2) 100%
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