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Question 1
Correct
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A 60-year-old male presented in the OPD with a severe pain in the chest, which radiated to the jaw and his left shoulder. What is your diagnosis?
Your Answer: MI
Explanation:Risk of myocardial infarction is high in patients with diabetes mellitus. High levels of sugar in the blood can damage the arteries and lead to an increased risk of atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries. This is why diabetic patients have an increased risk of Myocardial Infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A female patient presents with pain upon inspiration and dyspnoea. She had a myocardial infarction four days ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dressler's syndrome
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Although viral infection is the most common identifiable cause of acute pericarditis, the condition may be associated with many diseases. Non-viral causes of pericarditis include bacterial infection, MI, chest trauma, and neoplasm. Post-MI pericarditis may develop two to four days after an acute infarction and results from a reaction between the pericardium and the damaged adjacent myocardium. Dressler’s syndrome is a post-MI phenomenon in which pericarditis develops weeks to months after an acute infarction; this syndrome is thought to reflect a late autoimmune reaction mediated by antibodies to circulating myocardial antigens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 64-year-old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness. Her chest x-ray shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis. Three sputum tests stain positive for acid fast bacilli (AFB) but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.
Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?Your Answer: Mycobacterium avium intracellular complex
Explanation:Pulmonary mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection in immunocompetent hosts generally manifests as cough, sputum production, weight loss, fever, lethargy, and night sweats. The onset of symptoms is insidious.
In patients who may have pulmonary infection with MAC, diagnostic testing includes acid-fast bacillus (AFB) staining and culture of sputum specimens.The ATS/IDSA guidelines include clinical, radiographic, and bacteriologic criteria to establish a diagnosis of nontuberculous mycobacterial lung disease.
Clinical criteria are as follows:
Pulmonary signs and symptoms such as cough, fatigue, weight loss; less commonly, fever and weight loss; dyspnoea
Appropriate exclusion of other diseases (e.g., carcinoma, tuberculosis).
At least 3 sputum specimens, preferably early-morning samples taken on different days, should be collected for AFB staining and culture. Sputum AFB stains are positive for MAC in most patients with pulmonary MAC infection. Mycobacterial cultures grow MAC in about 1-2 weeks, depending on the culture technique and bacterial burden.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 51-year-old woman complains of sudden onset of severe headache and vomiting that is worse when she is lying flat. Fundoscopy confirms bilateral papilledema. Which is the definitive investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Computed tomography scan
Explanation:A head CT scan is the best step to rule out a mass lesion or bleed. Since the patient has symptoms that may suggest elevated intracranial pressure (ICP), a lumbar puncture should be consulted first with a neurologist since it is contraindicated in this case due to raised ICP and risk of coning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 5
Correct
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Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test.
Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin
Explanation:The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.
In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.
In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 6
Correct
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A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly.
Investigations reveal:
Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22)
Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 - 105)
ALT 198 iu/l (5 - 35)
AST 158 iu/l (1 - 31)
Albumin 25 g/L (37 - 49)
Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive
Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative
Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The clinical scenario describes a man in liver failure. Given the serological results, he is most likely to have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, +IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. in immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. While he could have a superimposed hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B, there is no mention of hepatitis D serology, make this an incorrect answer. The other choices do not involve hepatitis serologies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female presents to the ER with a respiratory infection for which the physician prescribes her azithromycin. She, however, is currently on combined oral contraceptive pills. Regarding her contraception, what should be advised to this patient?
Your Answer: Using 14d condoms after antibiotics
Correct Answer: No extra precaution
Explanation:Rifampicin is the only antibiotic that has been reported to reduce plasma oestrogen concentrations. When taking Rifampicin, oral contraceptives cannot be relied upon and a second method of contraception is mandatory. Amoxicillin, ampicillin, griseofulvin, metronidazole and tetracycline have been rarely associated with contraceptive failure. When these agents are used, the clinician should discuss the available data with the patient and suggest a second form of birth control. Other antibiotics are most likely safe to use concomitantly with oral contraceptives.
The danger with COCP is enzyme inducers which can lower the levels of the hormone in he blood, azithromycin is not an enzyme inducer. No additional precautions are required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with combined hormonal methods for durations of 3 weeks or less. The only proviso would be that if the antibiotics (and/or the illness) caused vomiting or diarrhoea, then the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.Inducers: RASAG
– Rifampicin
– Anticonvulsants, particularly phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbitone and primidone
– Spironolactone, St Johns wort
– Alcohol, long term
– Griseofulvin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Women's Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of insulinoma?
Your Answer: Low fasting glucose, high insulin, low C peptide
Correct Answer: Low fasting glucose, high insulin, high C peptide
Explanation:Insulinoma is associated with LOW fasting glucose, HIGH insulin level, and HIGH C peptide. Insulin-abuse or overdose will cause HGH insulin levels and a LOW C peptide. If the C peptide is low, be suspicious.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old lady presented with complaints of an erythematous rash over her shins, along with arthritis and painful swollen knees. What will be the single most likely finding on her chest X-ray?
Your Answer: Pleural effusion
Correct Answer: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Lofgren’s syndrome is characterised by a triad of erythema nodosum, arthritis and bilateral lymphadenopathy. It is a variant of sarcoidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent infection. Bone marrow aspiration revealed a calcium level of 3.9 mmol/l and alkaline phosphatase level of 160u/l. What type of cell would be found in abundance in the marrow spear?
Your Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Multiple myeloma or plasma cell myeloma, is a cancer of plasma cells, responsible for producing antibodies. It often, presents early with no symptoms followed by bone pain and pathological fractures (metastases), raised calcium levels, bleeding, frequent infections, and anaemia. It usually occurs around the age of 61 and is more common in men than women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old patient in casualty only opens her eyes upon painful stimuli, extends her limbs, and occasionally says inappropriate words. What is her Glasgow coma score?
Your Answer: 8
Correct Answer: 7
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale provides a score for assessment of impaired consciousness in response to specific stimuli considering the eye opening, verbal response and motor response. The score runs from 3 to 15, a coma being defined as a GCS of 8 or less. According to this patient’s responses and the respective points for each response, the score is 7 and the patient is in a coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 16-year-old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2 cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis
Explanation:The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a contraindication to the use of a triptan in the management of migraine?
Your Answer: Previous intracranial tumour
Correct Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:A history of ischaemic heart disease in a contraindication for prescribing triptans because they act by constricting cerebral and also coronary vessels, increasing the risk of stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old lung cancer patient presents with diminished reflexes, retention of urine, postural hypotension and sluggish pupillary reaction. What is the most likely explanation for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome
Explanation:Paraneoplastic syndromes are more common in patients with lung cancer. Signs and symptoms include inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, finger clubbing, hypercoagulability and Eaton-Lambert syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 60-year-old male presents with intermittent haemoptysis and chronic, productive cough. He has a strong history of smoking and has recently lost weight. What is the patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma
Explanation:The combination of haemoptysis, chronic productive cough, and recent weight loss in a smoker is a strong indication of bronchogenic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 16
Correct
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Type 2 hypersensitivity is mediated by:
Your Answer: IgG, IgM & complement
Explanation:In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies, IgG and IgM bind to antigens to form complexes that activate the classical pathway of complement to eliminate cells presenting foreign antigens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune System
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Question 17
Correct
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A 32-year-old male with a history of smoking half a pack of cigarettes per day complains of worsening breathlessness on exertion. He was working as a salesman until a few months ago. His father passed away due to severe respiratory disease at a relatively young age. Routine blood examination reveals mild jaundice with bilirubin level of 90 µmol/l. AST and ALT are also raised. Chest X-ray reveals basal emphysema. Which of the following explanation is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: ?-1-Antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that may cause lung and liver disease. The signs and symptoms of the condition and the age at which they appear vary among individuals. This would be the most likely option as it is the only disease that can affect both liver and lung functions.
People with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency usually develop the first signs and symptoms of lung disease between ages 20 and 50. The earliest symptoms are shortness of breath following mild activity, reduced ability to exercise, and wheezing. Other signs and symptoms can include unintentional weight loss, recurring respiratory infections, fatigue, and rapid heartbeat upon standing. Affected individuals often develop emphysema. Characteristic features of emphysema include difficulty breathing, a hacking cough, and a barrel-shaped chest. Smoking or exposure to tobacco smoke accelerates the appearance of emphysema symptoms and damage to the lungs.
About 10 percent of infants with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver disease, which often causes yellowing of the skin and sclera (jaundice). Approximately 15 percent of adults with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver damage (cirrhosis) due to the formation of scar tissue in the liver. Signs of cirrhosis include a swollen abdomen, swollen feet or legs, and jaundice. Individuals with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are also at risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A woman with severe renal failure undergoes a kidney transplant. However, after a few hours, she develops fever and anuria. The doctors are suspecting hyperacute organ rejection. Which are the cells primarily responsible for hyperacute organ rejection?
Your Answer: Helper T Cells
Correct Answer: B Cells
Explanation:Hyperacute rejection appears in the first minutes following transplantation and occurs only in vascularized grafts. This very fast rejection is characterized by vessel thrombosis leading to graft necrosis. Hyperacute rejection is caused by the presence of antidonor antibodies existing in the recipient before transplantation. These antibodies induce both complement activation and stimulation of endothelial cells to secrete Von Willebrand procoagulant factor, resulting in platelet adhesion and aggregation. The result of these series of reactions is the generation of intravascular thrombosis leading to lesion formation and ultimately to graft loss. Today, this type of rejection is avoided in most cases by checking for ABO compatibility and by excluding the presence of antidonor human leukocyte antigen (HLA) antibodies by cross-match techniques between donor graft cells and recipient sera. This type of rejection is also observed in models of xenotransplantation of vascularized organs between phylogenetically distant species when no immunosuppressive treatment is given to the recipients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 20-year-old male presented after an episode where he had collapsed. This was the second time he has collapsed during the past 3 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40 due to sudden cardiac death. Echocardiography showed evidence of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. His 24 hr ECG revealed several short runs of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia (VT). Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Implantable cardiovertor defibrillator
Explanation:This patient has a high risk of sudden cardiac death due to a strong family history and non sustained VT. So the most appropriate management is implantable cardiovertor defibrillator.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 34-year-old patient arrives at the clinic with cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Lymphomas are a type of cancer that arises from lymphocytes. There are two main types of lymphoma:
1. Hodgkin lymphomas, which are characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and
2. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHLs), which comprise all other types of lymphoma. NHLs are further classified according to the cell type, i.e., B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, and tumour grade.
Low-grade tumours originate from mature cells that have a slow growth rate and an indolent clinical course. The most common low-grade B-cell lymphoma is follicular lymphoma, while the most common low-grade T-cell lymphomas are the cutaneous T-cell lymphomas such as mycosis fungoides. High-grade tumours, on the other hand, have a rapid growth rate and an aggressive clinical course. Certain subtypes of NHL are more common in children and young adults, such as Burkitt lymphoma.
There is a variety of treatment options, depending on the type of lymphoma. Generally, treatment involves a combination of chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Limited disease low-grade tumours and high-grade NHL are treated with a curative approach. Advanced, low-grade tumours are treated with a palliative approach in symptomatic patients. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 21
Correct
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In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?
Your Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing
Explanation:There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male patient presents with a history hematochezia and rectal tenesmus for the last six months. What is most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diverticular disease
Correct Answer: Colorectal adenocarcinoma
Explanation:The patient presents with symptoms of possible colorectal adenocarcinoma. When located in the left colon, it typically presents with tenesmus and bleeding. On the right side usually presents with anaemia, weight loss and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A young man is reviewed for difficulty breathing. Lung function tests showed that his peak expiratory flow rate is 54% below the normal range for his age and height. What is a possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Whooping cough
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Peak Expiratory Flow (PEF), also called Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR) is a person’s maximum speed of expiration, as measured with a peak flow meter. Measurement of PEFR requires some practise to correctly use a meter and the normal expected value depends on a patient’s gender, age and height.
It is classically reduced in obstructive lung disorders, such as Asthma, COPD or Cystic Fibrosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old obese woman presented with severe abdominal pain in her right hypochondrium. An US abdomen was done which showed the presence of gallstones. The next step in management would be?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy
Explanation:With patients who are obese and have gallstones, the best procedure to be done is a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Reassurance and low fat diets would not have much affect because these symptoms would recur if a cholecystectomy is not done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the sign of life threatening asthma?
Your Answer: Bilateral wheeze
Correct Answer: Deteriorating level of consciousness
Explanation:A drop in level of consciousness is an indicator of high levels of PCO2 and cerebral cortex depression. It is a life threatening condition that requires intervention which may include mechanical ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the RET oncogene?
Your Answer: Lymphoma
Correct Answer: Medullary
Explanation:RET (rearranged during transfection) is a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development of neural crest derived cell lineages, kidney, and male germ cells. Different human cancers, including papillary and medullary thyroid carcinomas, lung adenocarcinomas, and myeloproliferative disorders display gain-of-function mutations in RET.
In over 90% of cases, MEN2 syndromes are due to germline missense mutations of the RET gene.
Multiple endocrine neoplasias type 2 (MEN2) is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), parathyroid tumours, and pheochromocytoma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A girl suffered full thickness circumferential burn to her right arm. What is best step in management?
Your Answer: Refer to burn unit
Correct Answer: Escharotomy
Explanation:An escharotomy is a surgical procedure used to treat full-thickness (third-degree) circumferential burns. In full-thickness burns, both the epidermis and the dermis are destroyed along with sensory nerves in the dermis. The tough leathery tissue remaining after a full-thickness burn has been termed eschar.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital with a four week history of weight loss, night sweats and cough. She was given a course of Amoxicillin for the past week but her condition deteriorated and she was referred to the hospital when she developed haemoptysis.
She was on maintenance prednisolone 10 mg once per day and four weeks earlier, she had received infliximab for a flare up of rheumatoid arthritis. She lived with her husband but had been admitted to hospital himself with influenza four days earlier. She was a lifelong non-smoker and worked most of her life as a missionary in Zimbabwe and South Africa.
On examination she looked cachexic and was pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5°C. Her blood pressure was 181/101 mmHg, pulse 121 beats per minute and oxygen saturations of 89% on room air. Her heart sounds were normal and there were no audible murmurs. Auscultation of her lung fields revealed bronchial breath sounds in the left upper zone. Examination of her abdomen was normal.
Mantoux test < 5mm (after 48 hours)
A chest radiograph revealed cavitating left upper lobe consolidation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Staphylococcal pneumonia
Correct Answer: Post-primary tuberculosis
Explanation:Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis is a chronic disease commonly caused by either endogenous reactivation of a latent infection or exogenous re-infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis (also called reactivation tuberculosis) develops in 5%-20% of patients infected with M. tuberculosis.Found mainly in adults, this form of tuberculosis arises from the reactivation of bacilli that lay dormant within a fibrotic area of the lung. In adults, reinfection with a strain of mycobacterium that differs from that which caused the primary infection is also possible. Predisposing factors include immunosuppression, diabetes, malnutrition and alcoholism.
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor ? (TNF-?). It is FDA approved for many autoimmune conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. One of the many known side effects of infliximab therapy is reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB). Because of the resemblances in clinical and radiological features, tubercular lesions in the lung may mimic malignancy. TB accounts for 27% of all infections initially presumed to be lung cancer on imaging studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 42-year-old female with a history of hypertension presented with increased thirst, polyuria and nocturia for 2 weeks duration. Her random blood sugar was 12 mmol/l. Which of the following antihypertensives can cause the above clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Thiazides and beta-blockers have been most commonly linked to the development of diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains of lethargy and tiredness. He has recently been discharged from the hospital after being admitted to the intensive care unit following a motorbike accident.
His thyroid function testing is :
TSH 0.3 IU/l (0.5-4.5)
Free T4 8 pmol/l (9-25)
Free T3 3.1 pmol/l (3.4-7.2)
Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?Your Answer: Sick euthyroid syndrome
Explanation:Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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