00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old male presented with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and thrombolysis was...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male presented with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and thrombolysis was planned. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: Intracerebral Haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty in breathing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty in breathing while running to the bus. Symptoms disappeared after resting. But the symptoms reappeared whilst he was climbing the stairs. On examination he was not dyspnoeic at rest. BP was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. His heart sounds were normal. There was an additional clicking noise in the fourth left intercostal space which is heard with each heartbeat. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his presentation?

      Your Answer: Unstable angina

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      The given history is more compatible with spontaneous pneumothorax. Left-sided pneumothoraxes may be associated with a clicking noise, which is heard with each heart-beat and can sometimes be heard by the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. He has been passing blood mixed with diarrhoea. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication.

      On examination he is pyrexial and clinically dehydrated. Cardiorespiratory and abdominal examinations are normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter infection

      Explanation:

      The patient has bloody diarrhoea that sounds like a food poisoning in the clinical scenario. Campylobacter is the most common cause of this in the United Kingdom. This is then followed by Salmonella and Shigella. The symptoms are usually self limiting. This is more likely to be bacterial from the food than a viral gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 48-year-old hairdresser presents to the GP with loss of sensation over the...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old hairdresser presents to the GP with loss of sensation over the lateral three and a half fingers of her right hand, tenderness over her right forearm, and inability to make a tight fist. She complains of pain in her right arm when twisting door handles anticlockwise. Phalen's and Tinel's tests are negative. She is otherwise neurologically intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pronator teres syndrome

      Explanation:

      Entrapment of the median nerve by pronator teres causes a median nerve neuropathy, which is worse during pronation of the forearm. Examination should involve excluding carpal tunnel syndrome and pronation of the affected forearm against resistance, which brings on the pain. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, the median nerve proximal to the wrist may be tender to palpation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In an emergency bowel procedure, which among these antibiotics are indicated during anaesthetic...

    Incorrect

    • In an emergency bowel procedure, which among these antibiotics are indicated during anaesthetic induction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic prophylaxis is utilized to avert infection and is based on the degree of contamination involved in the surgical procedure. Operations where the wound is contained with minimal risk of contamination, antibiotic prophylaxis is questionable. In this case there is a high risk of contamination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty using his right arm, slow walking...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple system atrophy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with a combination of akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs and the suggestion of autonomic features. This is most indicative of a diagnosis of multiple system atrophy.

      Multiple system atrophy (MSA) is a rare neurodegenerative disorder characterized by autonomic dysfunction, tremors, slow movement, muscle rigidity, and postural instability (collectively known as parkinsonism) and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old male, known hypertensive on antihypertensive medications, presented with complaints of dizziness...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male, known hypertensive on antihypertensive medications, presented with complaints of dizziness and lethargy, especially when rising from the chair. The most appropriate test would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ambulatory blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Ambulatory blood pressure recording is used to monitor BP for 24 hours whilst continuing the daily routine activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis. His initial blood results revealed raised calcium and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). He has a history of hypertension, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes.

      His most recent results have arrived on the ward, showing:
      Hb: 13.8 g/dL
      WCC: 7.7 x 10^9/L
      Plts: 212 x 10^9/L
      Na+: 138 mmol/L
      K+: 4.7 mmol/L
      Ca+2: 2.4 mmol/L
      Urea: 7.2 mmol/L
      Creatinine: 104 mmol/L
      Albumin: 38 g/L
      IgG: 24 g/L (6.0-13.0)
      IgA: 2.1 g/L (0.8-3.0)
      IgM: 1.3 g/L (0.4-2.5)
      Trace amounts of Bence Jones protein have also been detected in the urine. CXR shows normal heart and mediastinal contours, clear lungs bilaterally, osteopenia of the bony skeleton with no lytic lesions.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced serum caeruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      In Wilson’s disease, serum caeruloplasmin is decreased. Skin pigmentation is not increased, but may become jaundiced. 24 hour urine copper excretion is increased. Hepatic copper concentration is increased. Serum copper level is also increased. Key point: high copper. Remember Kayser-Fleisher rings for the eyes in Wilson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40 year-old lawyer suffered a road traffic accident. MRI reveals that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year-old lawyer suffered a road traffic accident. MRI reveals that he may have hemisection of the spinal cord. Which of the following findings is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral hyperreflexia

      Explanation:

      Spinal cord hemisection, also known as Brown-Sequard syndrome, is associated with symptoms affecting one spinothalamic and one corticospinal tract. Symptoms include ipsilateral paralysis, loss of vibration and position sense, and hyperreflexia below the level of the lesion. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation is also seen, usually beginning 2-3 segments below the level of the lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of the following would favour the diagnosis of Crohn's disease on rectal biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patchy inflammation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is patchy inflammation. Superficial ulceration as well as non-patchy inflammation are seen in ulcerative colitis (UC) in the colon and rectum; you would expect to see transmural inflammation in Crohn’s disease and it can be patchy and located anywhere from mouth to anus. Crypt distortion and crypt abscesses are seen in both UC and Crohn’s, however they are more common in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth to a male infant. She is now concerned about her child contracting hep B. Which of the following is the most suitable option for the baby in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HepB full vaccine and Ig

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B full vaccine and Ig should be given to babies born to hepatitis B positive mothers. Hepatitis B vaccine alone or Ig alone is not sufficient to prevent the infection in the new-born baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice.

      Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities.

      Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.
       
      What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old male presented with palpitations for 1 week. The palpitations were intermittent...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presented with palpitations for 1 week. The palpitations were intermittent and lasted a few hours per day. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hr ECG

      Explanation:

      Palpitations can be due to many reasons. As palpitations are not constant in this case, a 24 hr ECG is important to isolate these episodes and find any cardiac cause. Drugs depend on the cause for the palpitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: t(8;14)

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with recurrent attacks of red eyes with a sensation of grittiness. Which of the following is most likely cause of the red eyes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old, heavily alcohol dependent man came to the hospital with bleeding gums...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old, heavily alcohol dependent man came to the hospital with bleeding gums and petechiae upon examination. Which of the following is the likely vitamin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Vitamin deficiencies can happen in alcoholics due to malabsorption. Vitamin C deficiency or scurvy can result in bleeding gums and early symptoms including body weakness and lethargy. Other vitamin deficiencies can cause the following:
      B1 or thiamine – Wernicke’s encephalopathy
      B12 or cyanocobalamin – spinal cord degeneration
      Vitamin K – anticoagulant effects
      Vitamin E – neuropathies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which is intermittent and unpredictable in nature). When she swallows, food very suddenly 'sticks' in her chest. She is able to clear it when she drinks water, and then can finish the meal without any further incidence. A barium meal shows she has a corkscrew oesophagus. What is the most likely type of dysphagia here?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal spasm

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of uncoordinated irregular oesophageal peristalsis – this is characteristic of oesophageal spasm. The cork-screw oesophagus is also diagnostic of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show:

      Hb: 11.8 g/dl
      Platelets: 423 x 109/l
      WBC: 11.2 x 109/l
      Na+: 143 mmol/l
      K+: 3.9 mmol/l
      Urea: 6.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 78 μmol/l
      Uric acid: 0.45 mmol/l

      Ciprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 18-year-old male smoker presents with extreme rubor of the feet and missing...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male smoker presents with extreme rubor of the feet and missing foot pulses following an amputation of his right 2nd toe. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      Clinical criteria for the diagnosis of Buerger’s disease are:
      1 – smoking history
      2 – onset before the age of 50 years
      3 – infrapopliteal arterial occlusions
      4 – either upper limb involvement or phlebitis migrans
      5 – absence of atherosclerotic risk factors other than smoking Confident clinical diagnosis of Buerger’s disease may be made only when all five requirements have been fulfilled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old female was admitted to the emergency department with a moderate fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female was admitted to the emergency department with a moderate fever and productive cough. She commonly experiences central chest pain and regurgitation of undigested food particles. She did not suffer from acid reflux. Solid and liquid diet have both been affected for the last 4 months. A CXR showed an air-fluid level behind a normal sized heart. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is aspiration pneumonia due to the retained food in the oesophagus. This is the case with achalasia. There is no acid reflux in this disease. An air fluid level behind the heart also favours achalasia. In hiatus hernia, GORD is usually present with nausea and vomiting. In the case of a pharyngeal pouch being present, halitosis would be evident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are working as a junior doctor in a medical ward when the...

    Incorrect

    • You are working as a junior doctor in a medical ward when the pharmacist approaches you and informs you that Mr. Henry is documented as allergic to penicillin but you have prescribed him amoxicillin. The patient has received 3 doses without any reaction. The pharmacist has assured you he will not tell anyone about this incident. Which of the following is the most appropriate step now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform the patient of your mistake

      Explanation:

      The patient should be informed about the mistake. The antibiotic should also be changed and the incident should be documented. Thank the pharmacist for his courteous behaviour but do not encourage his attempt to cover up the matter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethical & Legal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid...

    Incorrect

    • Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid of light and sun and prefers darker environments. On examination, a generalized rash that does not blanch on pressure is noticed. What is the best action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      The rash is a characteristic sign of meningitis. Added to photophobia, headache and neck rigidity, meningitis is highly suggested diagnosis. IV antibiotics should be started immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history of chronic renal failure, who complains of increasing shortness of breath. Bloods reveal a creatinine of 570 μmol/l, urea of 48 mmol/l. He is also anaemic with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 8.9 g/dl.

      On examination he has a pericardial rub and there are bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure.

      Which of the following represents the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      This case presents with symptoms and lab results suggestive of uremic pericarditis, which is an indication for immediate haemodialysis. Uremic pericarditis is caused by inflammation of the membranes of the pericardial sac, which usually resolves after a period of intensive dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man who has been complaining of increasing shortness of breath had...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who has been complaining of increasing shortness of breath had a post-bronchodilator spirometry done.

      FEV1/FVC 0. 63
      FEV1% predicted 63%

      What is the best interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old male presented in the OPD with a severe pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presented in the OPD with a severe pain in the chest, which radiated to the jaw and his left shoulder. What is your diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MI

      Explanation:

      Risk of myocardial infarction is high in patients with diabetes mellitus. High levels of sugar in the blood can damage the arteries and lead to an increased risk of atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries. This is why diabetic patients have an increased risk of Myocardial Infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 18-year-old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome.
      The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and vomiting. Examination reveals a rigid abdomen and drawing of knees upon palpation. Which is the most appropriate action you should take for this baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is the most suggested case here based on the child’s symptoms. The urgent course of treatment is to bring the child to a paediatric surgical unit. If air reduction attempts fail, surgery will have to be done. Risk factors for intussusception include viral infection and intestinal lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A teenage girl presented in the OPD with a history of amenorrhea. She...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl presented in the OPD with a history of amenorrhea. She said she was exercising daily and needs to lose weight. On examination, she is 162 cm in height and 45 kgs in weight. Which of the following is the most probable cause in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypomagnesaemia and hypocalcaemia are possibly present

      Explanation:

      This scenario represents anorexia nervosa disorder, a psychological disorder. Extreme weight loss with a strict diet can lead to deficiency of many nutrients like magnesium and calcium. This can also cause amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Passmed