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  • Question 1 - The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

      Your Answer: Umbilical veins

      Correct Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      The median umbilical ligament is the remnant of the Urachus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last...

    Incorrect

    • A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last and only pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 3 years ago. Contractions are 6 minutes apart and on examination and the cervix is 6cm dilated. She wants to know the chances of a successful vaginal delivery if she proceeds with a vaginal delivery after C-section(VBAC). What is the chance of successful delivery with VBAC?

      Your Answer: 95%

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      There is 70% chance that a women who has had a C-section can deliver via spontaneous vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of...

    Correct

    • You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of the following risks is reduced with CS?

      Your Answer: Early postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      There are many different reasons for performing a delivery by Caesarean section. The four major indications accounting for greater than 70 per cent of operations are: 1. previous Caesarean section 2. dystocia 3. malpresentation 4. suspected acute fetal compromise. Other indications, such as multifetal pregnancy, abruptio placenta, placenta praevia, fetal disease and maternal disease are less common. The chances of early postpartum haemorrhage are greatly reduced in C-section deliveries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding monozygotic twins, all of the following are correct, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding monozygotic twins, all of the following are correct, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Has a constant incidence of 1:250 births

      Correct Answer: Has a constant incidence 1:600 births

      Explanation:

      The incidence of monozygotic twins is constant worldwide (approximately 4 per 1000 births). Approximately two thirds of twins are dizygotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are consenting a patient for a diagnostic hysteroscopy. What is the approximate...

    Incorrect

    • You are consenting a patient for a diagnostic hysteroscopy. What is the approximate risk of uterine perforation in diagnostic hysteroscopy?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Correct Answer: 0.10%

      Explanation:

      The risk of uterine perforation is 0.1% during therapeutic hysteroscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in every 20,000 live female births

      Correct Answer: Only 1% of affected foetuses will survive to term

      Explanation:

      The incidence of 45,XO turner syndrome is around 1 in 8000 live births. Approximately 1% of monosomy X female embryos survive. Phenotypically they are females and 90% do not develop secondary sexual characteristics and hormone replacement is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer: Renal Medulla

      Correct Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the main site for the production of renin. It plays an important role in the regulation of the blood pressure. These structures are mainly located in the cortex of the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department complaining of having headache for the past two week. On examination her blood pressure is 148/100 and heart rate is 90/min.There is swelling over both her ankles, hands and eyes. The rest of the examination is normal. CTG tracing is reassuring and urine dipstick showed proteinuria. Which of the following is considered as the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Antihypertensives and prophylactic MgSO4

      Correct Answer: Observation, steroids and antihypertensives

      Explanation:

      Patient in the given case has developed clinical features of mild preeclampsia presented as hypertension, ankle and facial oedema along with proteinuria.

      As the fetal lungs are not yet matured, best management in this case would be observing the patient frequently, starting her on steroids and antihypertensive drugs like methyldopa, or labetalol. 31 to 34 weeks of gestation is the optimal gestational age for starting dexamethasone therapy which will help in controlling blood pressure, helps in the maturation of lungs and will also gives time to organise delivery when the lungs are matured.

      Immediate C-section is not required at this stage of pregnancy, however a plan for cesarean section must be made to carry it out if the patient develops eclampsia during her stay in the hospital. Immediate vaginal delivery is also not indicated as the pregnancy is far from term. Induced labour will result in fetal demise soon after birth due to the fetal lung immaturity, but immediate delivery has to be considered once the fetal lung attains maturity.

      Magnesium Sulphate is indicated only in women with severe pre-eclampsia and even in such cases primary importance is given to blood pressure controlling. Magnesium sulphate is not indicated on this case as the patient is in mild eclampsia.

      Even though Paracetamol and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis are indicated in this case, anticoagulants should be avoided considering the emergency need for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?

      Your Answer: Norgeston®

      Correct Answer: Cerazette®

      Explanation:

      Traditional POP main mode of contraceptive action: thickening of cervical mucus Desogestrel-only POP main mode of contraceptive action is inhibition of ovulation Cerazette® is the only Desogestrel-only POP in the options above. Other desogestrel brands include: Aizea® Cerelle® Nacrez® The other POPs listed are considered traditional POPs and have the following compositions: Norgeston® – Levonorgestrel 30 mcg Micronor® & Noriday® – Norethisterone 350 mcg Femulen® – Ethynediol diacetate 500 mcg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.

      Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.

      Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Serologic testing of the fetus for measles

      Correct Answer: Contact tracing

      Explanation:

      The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
      Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
      Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.

      MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.

      As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.

      NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.

      As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Management (1/3) 33%
Genetics (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (0/2) 0%
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