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  • Question 1 - Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum? ...

    Correct

    • Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Gastric

      Explanation:

      The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely; gastric and pancreatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in the blood pressure in a 30 year old patient with a BP of 40 mmHg?

      Your Answer: Baroreceptor reflex

      Explanation:

      The baroreflex or baroreceptor reflex is one of the body’s homeostatic mechanisms for regulating blood pressure. It provides a negative feedback response in which an elevated blood pressure will causes blood pressure to decrease; similarly, decreased blood pressure depresses the baroreflex, causing blood pressure to rise. The system relies on specialised neurones (baroreceptors) in the aortic arch, carotid sinuses and elsewhere to monitor changes in blood pressure and relay them to the brainstem. Subsequent changes in blood pressure are mediated by the autonomic nervous system. Baroreceptors include those in the auricles of the heart and vena cava, but the most sensitive baroreceptors are in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch. The carotid sinus baroreceptors are innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX); the aortic arch baroreceptors are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells...

    Incorrect

    • The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells was blocked by a drug. Which of the following transmembrane proteins were blocked by this drug?

      Your Answer: Ca2+ channels

      Correct Answer: K+ channels

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential is due to selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions. The Na/K pump is responsible for the generation of a gradient across the membrane and it is due to the inherent ability of the K channels to allow diffusion back into the nerve at rest which charges the cells. In reality, the resting membrane potential is more positive because of small contributions by Na+ channels, Cl− channels and non-selective cation channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?

      Your Answer: Acute haemorrhagic change

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology
      • Pathology
      114.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?...

    Correct

    • The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?

      Your Answer: Ischial tuberosities

      Explanation:

      The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise?

      Your Answer: 4th

      Correct Answer: 3rd

      Explanation:

      The following structures arise from each branchial pouch:

      1st pouch – eustachian tube, middle ear, mastoid, and inner layer of the tympanic membrane

      2nd pouch – middle ear, palatine tonsils

      3rd pouch – inferior parathyroid glands, thymus

      4th pouch – superior parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial body which forms the parafollicular C-cells of the thyroid gland, musculature and cartilage of larynx (along with the sixth pharyngeal pouch)

      5th pouch – rudimentary structure

      6th pouch – along with the fourth pouch, contributes to the formation of the musculature and cartilage of the larynx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Endocrine; Embryology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The pudendal nerve is derived from? ...

    Incorrect

    • The pudendal nerve is derived from?

      Your Answer: L5, S1, S2

      Correct Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve derives it’s fibres from the ventral branches of the second, third and fourth sacral nerves (S2,3,4)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen: ...

    Correct

    • Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen:

      Your Answer: Oesophageal hiatus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is located in the muscular part of the diaphragm a T10 and is above, in front and a little to the left of the aortic hiatus. It transmits the oesophagus, the vagus nerves and some small oesophageal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules?

      Your Answer: Amoebiasis

      Correct Answer: Actinomycosis

      Explanation:

      Actinomycosis is primarily caused by any of the several members of the bacterial genus Actinomyces. These bacteria are generally anaerobes. And can cause multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A CT-scan of the lung shows a tumour crossing the minor (horizontal) fissure....

    Incorrect

    • A CT-scan of the lung shows a tumour crossing the minor (horizontal) fissure. This fissure separates:

      Your Answer: The lower lobe from the middle lobe

      Correct Answer: The middle lobe from the upper lobe

      Explanation:

      The horizontal fissure separates the upper lobe from the middle lobe. The oblique fissure on the other hand separates the lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobes. The lingula is found only on the left lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year old gentleman came to the emergency department, complaining of progressively increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year old gentleman came to the emergency department, complaining of progressively increasing weakness in his arms and legs over 5 days. On examination, there is symmetrical weakness on both sides of his face, along with weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of all four limbs. No loss of sensation noted. Deep tendon reflexes could not be elicited and plantar responses were downward. On enquiry, it was revealed that he had an upper respiratory tract infection 10 days ago. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an acute, autoimmune polyradiculoneuropathy which affects the peripheral nervous system and is usually triggered by an acute infectious process. 75% patients have a history of acute infection within the past 1–4 weeks, usually respiratory or gastrointestinal. immunisations have also been implicated. The most common form is acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy. It results in an ascending paralysis with complete loss of deep tendon reflexes. Treatment includes immunoglobulins and supportive care. However, the disease may be fatal due to severe pulmonary complications and dysautonomia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      762.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to...

    Incorrect

    • In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?

      Your Answer: In extrapyramidal disorders like Parkinsonism

      Correct Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An excision of a mass in the right parietal area of the head...

    Incorrect

    • An excision of a mass in the right parietal area of the head will be performed. In which layer of the scalp are the nerves and blood vessels located?

      Your Answer: Pericranium

      Correct Answer: Connective tissue

      Explanation:

      The scalp is the anatomical area bordered by the face at the front, and by the neck at the sides and back. The scalp is usually described as having five layers:

      1. The skin which contains numerous sebaceous glands and hair follicles.

      2. The connective tissue, a dense subcutaneous layer of fat and fibrous tissue that lies beneath the skin, containing the nerves and vessels of the scalp.

      3. The aponeurosis or galea aponeurotica, a tough layer of dense fibrous tissue which runs from the frontalis muscle anteriorly to the occipitalis posteriorly.

      4. The loose areolar connective tissue layer provides an easy plane of separation between the upper three layers and the pericranium.

      5. The pericranium is the periosteum of the skull bones and provides nutrition to the bone and the capacity for repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year old gentleman presented to the doctor with worsening dysphagia for both...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old gentleman presented to the doctor with worsening dysphagia for both solids and liquids over 6 months. This was associated with regurgitation of undigested food and occasional chest pain. Barium swallow revealed distal oesophageal dilatation with lack of peristalsis in the distal two-third oesophagus. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder where inappropriate contractions in the oesophagus lead to reduced peristalsis and failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax properly in response to swallowing. Classical triad of symptoms include dysphagia to fluids followed by solids, chest pain and regurgitation of undigested food. Other symptoms include belching, hiccups, weight loss and cough. Diagnosis is by:

      – X-ray with a barium swallow or oesophagography : narrowing at the gastroesophageal junction (‘bird/parrot beak’ or ‘rat tail’ appearance) and various degrees of mega-oesophagus (oesophageal dilatation) as the oesophagus is gradually stretched by retained food. Effectiveness of treatment can be measured with a 5-minute timed barium swallow.

      – Manometry – probe measures the pressure waves in different parts of oesophagus and stomach while swallowing.

      – Endoscopy

      – CT scan to exclude other causes like malignancy

      – Pathological examination showing defect in the nerves which control oesophageal motility (myenteric plexus).

      In Chagas disease, there is destruction of ganglion cells by Trypanosoma cruzi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count =...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 90 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 41 g/dl. Further examination of blood sample revealed increased osmotic fragility of the erythrocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?

      Your Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Spherocytes are small rounded RBCs. It is due to an inherited defect of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins. Membrane blebs form that are lost over time and cells become round instead of biconcave. As it is a normochromic anaemia, the MCV is normal. it is diagnosed by osmotic fragility test which reveals increased fragility in a hypotonic solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      995
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen...

    Incorrect

    • When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?

      Your Answer: The frequency of action potentials in auditory nerve fibres increases

      Correct Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea

      Explanation:

      An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Correct

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the following movements will be affected?

      Your Answer: Flexion of the leg

      Correct Answer: Extension of the leg

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps muscle is a great extensor of the thigh. Therefore, following nerve injury or cutting nerve supply to the quadriceps will affect extension of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which...

    Correct

    • A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?

      Your Answer: Perineum

      Explanation:

      Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance will be raised in the plasma of this patient?

      Your Answer: Bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed due to the break down of RBCs. Haemolysis results in haemoglobin that is broken down into a haem portion and globin which is converted into amino acids and used again. Haem is converted into unconjugated bilirubin in the macrophages and shunted to the liver. In the liver it is conjugated with glucuronic acid making it water soluble and thus excreted in the urine. Its normal levels are from 0.2-1 mg/dl. Increased bilirubin causes jaundice and yellowish discoloration of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Different substances have different renal clearance rates. Which of the following substances should...

    Correct

    • Different substances have different renal clearance rates. Which of the following substances should have the lowest renal clearance rate in a healthy patient?

      Your Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      Under normal conditions the renal clearance of glucose is zero, since glucose is completely reabsorbed in the renal tubules and not excreted. Glycosuria – the excretion of glucose into the urine- is nearly always caused by elevated blood glucose levels, most commonly due to untreated diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the...

    Incorrect

    • Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the heart will lead to:

      Your Answer: Decreased PR interval

      Correct Answer: Increased PR interval

      Explanation:

      AV node damage may lead to an increase in the PR interval to as high as 0.25 – 0.40 s (normal = 0.12 – 0.20 s). In the case of severe impairment, there might be a complete failure of passage of impulses leading to complete block. In this case, the atria and ventricles will beat independently of each other.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain?

      Your Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins and the left superior intercostal vein.
      The superior thyroid veins and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein. The right and left inferior thyroid veins to drain into their respective brachiocephalic veins (right and left).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 31-year-old woman is diagnosed with adrenal hyperplasia, and laboratory samples are taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman is diagnosed with adrenal hyperplasia, and laboratory samples are taken to measure serum aldosterone and another substance. Which is most likely to be the other test that was prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Plasma adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

      Correct Answer: Plasma renin

      Explanation:

      The evaluation of a patient in whom hyperaldosteronism is first to determine that hyperaldosteronism is present (serum aldosterone) and, if it is present, to differentiate primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism. The aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) is the most sensitive means of differentiating primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism as it is abnormally increased in primary hyperaldosteronism, and decreased or normal but with high renin levels in secondary hyperaldosteronism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: Proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Correct Answer: Digastric

      Explanation:

      The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:

      – The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric

      – The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid

      – The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Macrolides are a group of antibiotics commonly used to treat respiratory tract and...

    Correct

    • Macrolides are a group of antibiotics commonly used to treat respiratory tract and soft-tissue infections. Which of the following antibiotics is a macrolide?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used in the treatment of several bacterial infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin infections, chlamydia infections, pelvic inflammatory disease, and syphilis. It may also be used during pregnancy to prevent Group B streptococcal infection in the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?

      Your Answer: TIP

      Correct Answer: ABVD

      Explanation:

      ABVD is a chemotherapy regimen used in the first-line treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It consists of concurrent treatment with the chemotherapy drugs, adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine. It supplanted the older MOPP protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year old patient with signs and symptoms of internal haemorrhage was brought...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old patient with signs and symptoms of internal haemorrhage was brought in for emergency surgery to control the bleeding. Angiography results revealed an advanced duodenal tumour that had perforated the blood vessel immediately behind the first part of the duodenum. Which of the following is the most likely blood vessel that was ruptured by the cancer?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is the artery that lies just behind the first portion of the duodenum. The gastroduodenal artery would be the most likely artery to be perforated by a cancer in this area. The perforation is as a result of the spillage of the acidic content of the chyme in the duodenum. All the other blood vessels in the list would less likely be affected by the gastric expellant from the duodenum. The coronary vein is located in the lesser curvature of the stomach. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal arcade is located inferiorly to the first part of the duodenum on the head of the pancreas. The hepatic artery proper is a branch of the common hepatic artery that is located superior to the first portion of the duodenum. The splenic vein arises from the spleen; it forms the portal vein by joining the superior mesenteric vein. It is laterally detached from the duodenum. Both the left gastric vein and the splenic vein are located superior to the first portion of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      41.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/12) 42%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Physiology (6/13) 46%
General (2/3) 67%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (2/5) 40%
Pelvis (1/2) 50%
Endocrine; Embryology (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (3/3) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Head & Neck (0/3) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (3/3) 100%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Passmed