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Question 1
Incorrect
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Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a stereospecific, non-covalent, and irreversible manner.
It has the greatest impact on the activity of which of the following drugs?Your Answer: Phase II block with suxamethonium
Correct Answer: Vecuronium
Explanation:Sugammadex is a modified cyclodextrin that works as an aminosteroid neuromuscular blocking (nmb) reversal agent. By encapsulating each molecule in the plasma, it rapidly reverses rocuronium and, to a lesser extent, vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Consequently, a Ā concentration gradient favours the movement of these nmb agents away from the neuromuscular junction.Ā Pancuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade at low levels has also been reversed.
By inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction, antibiotics in the aminoglycoside group potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents. This can be reversed by giving calcium but not neostigmine or sugammadex.
Sugammadex will not reverse the effects of mivacurium, which belongs to the benzylisoquinolinium class of drugs.
A phase II or desensitisation block occurs when the motor end-plate becomes less sensitive to acetylcholine as a result of an overdose or repeated administration of suxamethonium. The use of neostigmine has been shown to be effective in reversing this weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?
Your Answer: The ductus venosus allows 60% of well oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver into the inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale
Explanation:During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.
Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.
Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.
It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.
Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?Your Answer: It is less likely to cause hepatotoxicity than sevoflurane
Correct Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane
Explanation:Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.
Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.
Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.
The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).
The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.
P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.
Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:
Your Answer: Increases the volume of urine passed
Correct Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body
Explanation:The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.
Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?
Your Answer: Thyroxine
Correct Answer: ADH
Explanation:Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment.
Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?Your Answer: Appointment of a laser protection supervisor
Correct Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles
Explanation:Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.
Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.
Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence wonāt elicit the protective blink.
Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination:
Glasgow coma score: 10
Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg.
ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms.
Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?Your Answer: Administer oral activated charcoal
Correct Answer: Give fluid boluses
Explanation:The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.
Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.
Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).
Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?Your Answer: Oxygen at C2
Correct Answer: Sulphur at C2
Explanation:Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).
The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.
The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).
The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs.
He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?Your Answer: Tramadol
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment.
As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs).
Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.Your Answer: 175 mL/minute
Correct Answer: 1400 mL/minute
Explanation:Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.
It is calculated mathematically by:
VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute
where,
1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.
Note:
1 MET Eating
Dressing
Use toilet
Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
2 METs Playing a musical instrument
Walking indoors around house
Light housework
4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
Walking up hill
Running a short distance
Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
Walking on level ground at 4 mph
Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
6 METs Leisurely swimming
Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
Basketball game
10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
Competitive football
Fast cycling (14-16 mph) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman, is admitted into hospital. She has undergone a thoracoscopic sympathectomy.
To enable ease of access during surgery, her right arm has been abducted.
On examination, immediately after surgery, she is noted to have lost the ability to abduct her right arm, with the presence a weak lateral rotation in the same arm. She has also lost sensation in the outer aspect of the lower deltoid area of the skin.
Her symptoms are as a result of injury to a nerve during surgery. What nerve is it?Your Answer: Lower subscapular nerve
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The axillary nerve arises from spinal roots C5-C6. It has both sensory and motor functions:
Sensory: Provides innervation to the skin over the lower deltoid area
Motor: Provides innervation to the teres minor (responsible for stabilisation of glenohumeral joint and external rotation of shoulder joint) and deltoid muscles (responsible for abduction of arms glenohumeral joint).
Injury to the axillary nerve will result in the patient being unable to abduct the arm beyond 15 degrees and a loss of sensory feeling over lower deltoid area.
These symptoms could also be a result of over-abduction of the arm (>90°) which would cause the head of the humerus to become dislocated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer?
Your Answer: 1 litre of gas causes the vane to rotate 250 times
Correct Answer: Measures the minute volume to within an accuracy of +/- 10%
Explanation:A Wrights Respirometer measures the volume of air exhaled over the course of one minute of normal breathing
It is unidirectional and measures tidal volume and minute volume of gas flow in one direction. It is placed at the expiratory side (lower pressure than inspiratory side therefore lower chances of gas leaks)
Slits are arranged such that incoming gas will rotate the vane at a rate of 150 revolutions per litre of flowing gas
The Wright respirometer tends to over-read at high flow rates and under-read at low flows because of mechanical causes like friction and inertia and the accumulation of water vapour
The ideal flow for accurate readings is 2 L/min for the respirometer. The respirometer reads the tidal volume and minute volume with a ±5ā10% accuracy within the range of 4ā24 L/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient admitted to the hospital is on oxygen via a venturi mask.
The air entrainment ratio is 1:9 i.e. 1 litre of 100% oxygen from the source entrains 9 litres of air from the atmosphere). The flow rate of 100% oxygen is 6L/minute.
Based on the given data which of the following value approximates the oxygen concentration delivered to the patient?Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 28%
Explanation:The formula for calculating air: oxygen entrainment ratio is given as :
100% ā FiO2 = air/oxygen entrainment ratio
Since FiO2 ā 21% and the entrainment ratio is already known. Substituting the values in the equation: x = FiO2.100 ā x = 9
x ā 21
100 ā x = 9(x ā 21)
100 ā x = 9x ā 189
10x = 289
x = 289/10
x = 28.9% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?
Your Answer: A secondary drop in temperature may be seen
Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause
Explanation:Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.
During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.
The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.
Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which statement is true of albumin?
Your Answer: Most of the body's stores are in extravascular compartment
Correct Answer: Is synthesised and stored in the liver
Explanation:Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.
Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.
Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.
If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.Causes of low albumin are
1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?Your Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry
Explanation:Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.
Which of the following liver cells is most important in phase I of drug metabolism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Centrilobular cells
Explanation:The metabolism of drugs in the liver occurs in 3 phases
Phase I: This involves functionalization reactions, which are of 3 types, namely hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction reactions catalysed by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes.
Phase II: This involves conjugation or acetylation reactions. The goal is to create water soluble metabolites that can be excreted from the body.
The liver is the second largest organ. It’s smallest functional unit is the acinus which is divided into 3 zones:
Zone I (periportal): This zone receives the largest amount of oxygen supply as it is the closest to the blood vessels. It is the site of plasma protein synthesis.
Zone II (mediolobular): This is located between the portal triad and central vein.
Zone III (centrilobular): This is closest to the central vein and receives the least amount of oxygen supply.
Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the periportal zone of the liver, and function to remove foreign particles and breakdown red blood cells via phagocytosis.
Ito cells are fat-storing liver cells found in the space of Disse. Their function is to take-uo, store and secrete retinoids, as well as manufacture and release proteins that make up the extracellular matrix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis.
Clinical examination is as follows:
Airway: Patent
Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added
Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries
Pulse: 125 beats per minute
BP: 125/96 mmHg
Disability:
Glasgow coma score 15
Anxious and in pain.
Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left cephalic vein
Explanation:The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
Minimal systolic pressure changes
Anxiety, fright or hostility
Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale
Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).
Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders
Explanation:The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:
Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.
Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.
Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.
Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure
Explanation:Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Clā symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group
The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).
Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect
Explanation:An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.
The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.
The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.
The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed.
He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.
The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. It is both anatomically and physiologically different from the parasympathetic nervous system.
Which best describes the anatomical layout of the sympathetic nervous system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Explanation:The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. They are anatomically and physiologically different.
The sympathetic nervous system arises from the thoracolumbar outflow (T1-L5 ) at the lateral horns of grey matter of the spinal cord. Their preganglionic neurones are usually short myelinated and synapse in ganglia lateral to the vertebral column and have acetyl choline (Ach) as the neurotransmitter. Their postganglionic neurones are longer and unmyelinated and synapse with effector organ where the neurotransmitter is either adrenaline or noradrenaline.
The outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system is craniosacral. The cranial part originates from the midbrain and medulla (cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X) and the sacral outflow is from S2, S3 and S4. Their preganglionic neurones are usually long myelinated and synapse in ganglia close to the target organ and has Ach as its neurotransmitter. The unmyelinated postganglionic neurones is shorter and they synapse with effector organ. The neurotransmitter here is also Ach.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. Only the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are cholinergic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution
Explanation:The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She was found collapsed on the street. She has visual and oculomotor deficits on examination, but her motor function is intact.
A digital subtraction angiography is performed that shows occlusion of the basilar artery at the site where the vertebral arteries fuse to form the basilar artery.
Which anatomical landmark corresponds to this site of occlusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The base of the pons
Explanation:The basilar artery is a large vessel that is formed by the union of the vertebral arteries at the junction of the medulla and pons. It lies in the pontine cistern and follows a shallow groove on the ventral pontine surface, extending to the upper border of the pons.
The basilar artery then bifurcates into the two posterior cerebral arteries that form part of the Circle of Willis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).
ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:
Salivation
Lacrimation
Defecation
Micturition
Sweating
Miosis
Bradycardia, and
Bronchospasm.Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.
SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.
How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean
Explanation:Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.
Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.
Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:
Undamped: 0
Critically damped: 1
Optimally damped: 0.64An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.
An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.
Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:
The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You areĀ given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:
A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre
Local anaesthetic properties.
Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels
Explanation:Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.
It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.
Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.
Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.
Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.
Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.
Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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