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  • Question 1 - An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was irritable with evidence of weight loss. His stools were pale, bulky and malodorous. What is the most appropriate test that can be done to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Liver biopsy

      Correct Answer: Jejunal Biopsy

      Explanation:

      Pale, bulky, malodorous stools are evidence of fat malabsorption syndrome. The diagnostic test is jejunal biopsy to rule out other differential diagnoses such as celiac disease, giardiasis or Crohn’s disease etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor...

    Incorrect

    • At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor development?

      Your Answer: Can roll over

      Correct Answer: Finger play with the hands open and brought together

      Explanation:

      By the age of three months a child should become more fascinated with their hands and fingers| they can bring their hand to their mouth, open and close their hand, and shake and grab at dangling objects and toys. Their ability to roll over will come by the time the child is 6 months, at which time they will also be able to sit with support. Soon, at 8-9 months, attempts will be made to crawl and as they approach 12 months they will be able to pull on objects to stand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In a mother who has taken selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI's) after 20...

    Incorrect

    • In a mother who has taken selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI's) after 20 weeks gestation, which of the following may be an associated adverse condition in the neonate?

      Your Answer: Neural tube defects

      Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Treatment of depression is an important component of maternal and neonatal health. The use of SSRIs and antidepressants in the first trimester are unlikely to carry any congenital risks. However the use of the antidepressants closer to delivery may result in some respiratory, motor, gastrointestinal and central nervous system problems, with the most concerning of these being persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. Other conditions such as cleft palate, jaundice, neural tube defects or floppy baby syndrome have not been shown to occur with SSRI use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?

      Your Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1–3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi| approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      241.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:Changes in breast size and/or shape| asymmetric breastsPalpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrantSkin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair folliclesNipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged dischargeAxillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissueIn advanced stages: ulcerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum?

      Your Answer: It is not associated with childhood malignancy

      Correct Answer: The typical eruption is symmetrical, tender, and with bruise like lesions to the shins, ankles, and knees

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis or ulceration. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides, and malignancies like some leukemias and lymphomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      153
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Give antipyretic and ask to come later

      Correct Answer: Admit for infection screen and start IV antibiotic

      Explanation:

      This temperature is considered to be a mild fever and is most often caused by a minor infection in children of this age. Therefore, an infection screen should be conducted and an IV antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The severity of psoriasis can be assessed using which of the following tools?...

    Incorrect

    • The severity of psoriasis can be assessed using which of the following tools?

      Your Answer: Dermatology Severity Score- DSS

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis Area and Severity Index- PASI

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that is mainly due to the interplay between keratinocytes, dermal vascular cells, and antigen-presenting cells. There are five main types of psoriasis based on the type and severity of the lesions it produces. A useful tool to determine the extent and severity of psoriasis is the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score, which takes into account the percentage of a specific area affected by psoriasis in combination with severity, which in turn is assessed by the presence of desquamation, induration, and erythema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Association with HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which patients present with thyrotoxicosis and related ophthalmopathy, and dermopathy. Many affected patients experience hyperthyroidism. Peak incidence of graves disease is after the 3rd decade of life and is more common in women than in men. Graves susceptibility is association with HLA-DR3. Clinical features of Graves disease include an increased metabolic rate, heat intolerance, irritability, weight loss despite increasing appetite, diarrhoea palpitations, chemosis, acropachy and onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh and a hyperpigmented, rhabdoid whorl rash. She has a history of seizures since she was three years old and warts similar to the one she has now. Family history reveals the mother had two in utero stillbirths. The doctor observes small vesicles on the anterior surface of her left wrist. Other findings include mild scoliosis, thin wiry hair, and peg-shaped teeth. Her gait is normal and she is otherwise healthy. Ruth Griffiths score reveals a reduced sub quotient in terms of social skills, performance, and language and hearing skills. The doctor takes a biopsy sample which shows many intradermal eosinophils in the absence of inflammatory cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incontinentia pigmenti

      Explanation:

      Incontinentia pigmenti is a genetic condition that affects females more than males. It usually manifests in the skin but can affect other parts of the body as well. It presents with a blistering rash that may evolve into wart-like growths. Hyperpigmentation and hair loss are also present, as well as eye and teeth abnormalities. Clinically there are three phases: 1- the bullous phase – crops of vesicles appear in the first 2 weeks of life|2- the papular phase – warty papules that flatten out over the skin| and 3- the hyperpigmented phase – pigmentary changes in the form of whorls and streaks that are hypo- and hyperpigmented in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach

      Explanation:

      H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 6 year old child presents with acute scrotal pain. Clinical examination reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with acute scrotal pain. Clinical examination reveals scrotal tenderness, redness, swelling, and associated hydrocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni

      Explanation:

      Although all of the options may lead to an acute red scrotum, torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni is the most common cause at this age (age 12-16 years).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more...

    Incorrect

    • A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more than the current standard treatment (95% confidence interval minus 2 to 22).Which of the following statements is most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The difference is not statistically significant

      Explanation:

      If the 95% confidence interval contains zero (more precisely, the parameter value specified in the null hypothesis), then the effect will not be significant at the 0.05 level.If the 95% CI for the DIFFERENCE between the 2 groups contains the value 0, this means that the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Conversely, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 0, then the p-value will be strictly less than 0.05. The same applies when comparing groups using a ratio, such as an odds ratio or risk ratio. When using a RATIO instead of a DIFFERENCE, the situation of no difference between the 2 groups will be indicated by a value of 1 instead of 0. If the ratio equals to 1, the 2 groups are equal. Hence, if the 95% CI of the ratio contains the value 1, the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Alternatively, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 1, the p-value is strictly less than 0.05.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is usually associated with lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum (also called Kaposi varicelliform eruption) is a disseminated viral illness usually associated with lymphadenopathy.It is most often caused by Herpes Simplex type 1 or type 2. Occasionally, other viruses such as coxsackievirus A16 may cause eczema herpeticum. Affected children usually develop itchy blisters and fever after coming in contact with an affected individual who may or may not display cold sores.It is characterised by an itchy and sometimes painful cluster of blisters most commonly on the face initially. This spreads over one to several weeks resulting in further crops of blisters which can become confluent. Lymphadenopathy and fever are common in these patients.The severity varies from mild illness to life-threatening, especially in immunocompromised children or young infants. It is markedly more common in children with atopic dermatitis. It is one of the few dermatological emergencies, and oral antivirals are often indicated. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be needed if there is eyelid or eye involvement. Occasionally, superadded skin infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular pain. On examination, he is found to have testicular tenderness. On trans-illumination, a faint blue dot can be seen. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Torsion of the hydatid cyst of the testis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be torsion of a hydatid cyst of the testis.Note:The differential diagnoses in acute testicular pain/swelling are listed in the possible answers. Testicular torsion typically affects adolescent males and presents with acute painful swelling and a horizontally lying testicle. Other options:- Epididymo-orchitis is diagnosed during surgery when a thickened erythematous epididymis is noted. Ectopic ureteric insertion into the vas must be excluded by ultrasound scan on an out-patient basis. The hydatid cyst or cyst of Morgagni represents the remnants of the Mullerian structure. In the pre-pubertal child, a surge in hormones can stimulate growth and chance of torsion. It is diagnosed by surgical exploration or by a blue dot sign. Idiopathic scrotal oedema tends to be within the scrotum itself, and the testis can be examined in the groin to exclude pain in the testis. All acute scrotal pain must be explored to exclude testicular torsion unless a surgical registrar is convinced of a torted hydatid cyst.- An 8-year-old is more likely to present with a torted hydatid cyst. The blue dot sign is diagnostic and can negate the need for surgical exploration. The age of the child also makes epididymo-orchitis less likely.- Idiopathic scrotal oedema presents with an erythematous and thickened scrotum. This can cross the midline and involve the whole scrotum.- Finally, an inguinal hernia would present with a mass in the groin extending to the scrotum that you cannot get above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the garden. She is unvaccinated as the parents are concerned regarding side effects. There is no contraindication to vaccinations. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give complete DPT vaccine course

      Explanation:

      A complete course of DPT should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 2-year-old boy's illness started with a 4-day history of fever and cough....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy's illness started with a 4-day history of fever and cough. Crepitations are noted upon auscultation. Other examination results are temperature 38.9C, O2 sats 94% on air, respiratory rate is 45/min, and capillary refill time 1 sec. Urine is also negative on dipstick. What is the single investigation most likely to lead to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood for culture and sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Blood culture and sensitivity will distinguish the bacteria that is responsible for the infection and the effective antibiotic treatment to which the bacteria is sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur...

    Incorrect

    • Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur in anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious, psychiatric eating disorder characterized by distorted self-image due to which abnormal eating behaviours are adopted. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the gastrointestinal system. The GI manifestations of anorexia are enlarged salivary glands due to purging behaviour, gastritis, gastroparesis, acute gastric dilatation, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, elevated liver transaminases, which cause hepatocyte apoptosis leading to cirrhosis, and steatosis leading to fatty liver. Hepatosplenomegaly is not a recognized complication of anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following chromosomes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 15

      Explanation:

      Angelman Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The features of this condition include intellectual disability, a delay in developmental milestones, and movement disorders. The features occur as a result of the deletion or mutation of the maternal copy of the UBE3A gene located on Chromosome 15q. Though individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, only the maternal gene remains active in parts of the brain. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
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  • Question 21 - A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension about 10 days later. What would be the characteristic blood test finding in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depressed CH 50 level

      Explanation:

      Because the medical history included tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension, there is a strong suspicion of a case of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN). Patients with PSGN usually have serological findings showing depressed serum haemolytic component CH50 and serum concentrations of C3. Sometimes depressed C4 levels are also apparent, but not always, therefore, the answer to this question is: depressed CH50 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On examination, hypopigmented macules were found on her abdomen with acne-like eruptions on her face. Also, her fingers show small periungual fibrous papules. Her parents said that she has learning disabilities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville’s disease)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient, according to the clinical scenario provided is tuberous sclerosis. It is an autosomal-dominant disorder characterised by hamartomas located throughout the body, often prominently involving the central nervous system and skin. Two loci on chromosomes 9 and 16 have been identified to be associated with this condition. The condition has a variable expression and penetrance and is further characterised by:- Seizures (usually infantile spasms)- Developmental delay- Facial/cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum)- Periungual fibromas (pink projections from the nail folds)- Shagreen patches (leathery thickenings of the skin usually on the back) – Ash leaf macules (areas of depigmentation that become visible under a Wood’s light)- Fundoscopy may reveal white streaks along the fundal vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow...

    Incorrect

    • An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow crusted lesions. Her mother complains that the child has been experiencing chronic diarrhoea and recurrent skin infections. She is non-febrile, but her growth chart is highly suggestive of failure to thrive.The constellation of symptoms present in this child suggests which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leiner's disease

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s presentation, he’s probably suffering from Leiner’s diseaseLeiner’s disease is a severe generalised form of seborrhoeic dermatitis. It is also associated with recurrent diarrhoea, recurrent skin and internal infections, and failure to thrive.Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common and self-limiting condition in childhood. Lesions affect the scalp (cradle cap), and sometimes the ear, nose, and eyebrows. It is characterised by greasy yellow or yellow-brown scales.There is an association with Malassezia, and the lesions are a reaction to this yeast, rather than caused by it.It is most common in the 6-12 month age group. Simple brushing with a soft bristle brush, use of oil or emollient, and ketoconazole 2% shampoo are all treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infection causes: jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, petechia, microcephaly, hearing loss and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 25 - A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
      Parametric tests:
      Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
      Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlation

      Non-parametric tests:
      Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
      Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
      chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
      Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.

      The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
      This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are located in the scrotum and are small and soft. What is the most likely diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Kallmann’s syndrome.Kallmann’s syndrome is due to isolated gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency. It is often inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Other options:- While Klinefelter’s syndrome is also associated with hypogonadism, the other clinical features of Klinefelter’s are not seen. – Cryptorchidism is ruled out by the presence of testes in the scrotum. – The presentation of the child is not suggestive of mumps orchitis or hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 28 - From the options provided, which statement would most likely points towards Munchausen's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • From the options provided, which statement would most likely points towards Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a cause of sudden infant death

      Explanation:

      Munchausen syndrome by proxy is a mental illness and a form of child abuse. The caretaker of a child, most often a mother or a father, either makes up fake symptoms or causes real symptoms to make it look like the child is sick. The person with MSP gains attention by seeking medical help for exaggerated or made-up symptoms of a child in his or her care. As health care providers strive to identify what’s causing the child’s symptoms, the deliberate actions of the mother or caretaker can often make the symptoms worse.The person with MSP does not seem to be motivated by a desire for any type of material gain. People with MSP may create or exaggerate a child’s symptoms in several ways. They may simply lie about symptoms, alter tests (such as contaminating a urine sample), falsify medical records, or they may actually induce symptoms through various means, such as poisoning, suffocating, starving, and causing infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in the urine and pain in his abdomen. On examination, abdominal swelling is present and blood pressure is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Haematuria and abdominal swelling may indicate either polycystic kidney disease or a tumour. Because of the patient’s age, the likelihood of a tumorous growth is small, thus an ultrasound is the best choice for this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 30 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (0/1) 0%
Child Development (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Passmed