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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter?

      Your Answer: Detect real-time oxygen saturation

      Correct Answer: Is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation

      Explanation:

      The pulse oximeter provides a continuous non-invasive measurement of the arterial oxygen saturation. The light emitting diodes (LEDs) produce beams of red and infrared light at 660 nm and 940 nm respectively (not 640 and 960 nm), which travel through a finger (toe, ear lobe or nose) and are then detected by a sensitive photodetector.

      The light absorbed by non-pulsatile tissues is constant (DC), and the non-constant absorption (AC) is the result of arterial blood pulsation. The DC and AC components at 660 and 940 nm are then analysed by the microprocessor and the result is related to the arterial saturation.

      An isosbestic point is a point at which two substances absorb a wavelength of light to the same degree. In pulse oximetry the different absorption profiles of oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin are used to quantify the haemoglobin saturation (in %). Isosbestic points occur at 590 and 805 nm (not 490 and 805 nm), where the light absorbed is independent of the degree of saturation, and are used as reference points.

      The pulse oximeter is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation, and below 70% the readings are extrapolated. Pulse oximeters average their readings every 10 to 20 seconds and thus they cannot detect acute desaturation events. Consequently, they are often referred to as ‘lag’ monitors, due to the time delay in identifying the desaturation episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Compared to the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) has:...

    Incorrect

    • Compared to the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) has:

      Your Answer: Adrenaline as the pre-ganglionic neurotransmitter

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic receptors in pre and post ganglionic synapses

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life...

    Correct

    • A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?

      Your Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.

      The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Correct

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable

      Explanation:

      Linear regression, using a technique called curve fitting, allows us to make predictions regarding a certain variable.

      Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.

      Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.

      Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
      1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
      2. ilioinguinal nerve
      3. spermatic cord (males only)
      4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)

      The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.

      The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
      Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
      Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
      Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canal

      The Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An intravenous drug infusion is started at a rate of 20 ml/hour. The...

    Incorrect

    • An intravenous drug infusion is started at a rate of 20 ml/hour. The drug concentration in the syringe is 5 mg/mL. The drug's plasma clearance is 20 L/hour.

      Which of the following values, assuming that the infusion rate remains constant, best approximates the drug's plasma concentration at steady state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 mcg/mL

      Explanation:

      When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.

      Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.

      ID = Cpss × CL

      We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.

      ID = Cpss × 20

      Therefore,

      Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml

      Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman complains of pain in her upper abdomen to her physician....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of pain in her upper abdomen to her physician. The pain comes intermittently in waves and gets worse after eating food. There are no associated complaints of fever or bowel problems.

      The pain intensity is 6/10, and paracetamol relieves it a little. There is suspicion that part of the biliary tree is blocked.

      Which area of the duodenum does this blocked tube open into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2nd part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from biliary colic since her pain is intermittent and comes and goes in waves. Biliary colic pain gets worse after eating, especially fatty food as bile helps digest fats. Gallstones are the most common cause of biliary colic and are usually located in the cystic duct or common bile duct. But since this patient has no signs of jaundice or steatorrhea, the duct most likely blocked is the cystic duct.

      The cystic duct drains the gallbladder and combines with the common hepatic duct to form the common bile duct. The common bile duct then merges with the pancreatic duct and opens into the second part of the duodenum (major duodenal papilla).

      The duodenojejunal flexure is attached to the diaphragm by the ligament of Treitz and is not associated with any common pathology.
      The fourth part of the duodenum passes very close to the abdominal aorta and can be compressed by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
      The third part of the duodenum can be affected by superior mesenteric artery syndrome, where the duodenum is compressed between the SMA and the aorta, often in cases of reduced body fat.
      The first part of the duodenum is the most common location for peptic ulcers affecting this organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____? ...

    Incorrect

    • A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Type I – immediate hypersensitivity reaction

      Examples are: Atopy, urticaria, Anaphylaxis, Asthma( IgE mediated).

      Type II – Antibody mediated cytotoxic reaction

      Examples are: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Thrombocytopenia( IgM or IgG mediated).

      Type III – Immune complex mediated reaction

      Examples are: Serum sickness,SLE – IgG., Farmers lungs, rheumatoid arthritis

      Type IV – Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

      Examples are: Contact dermatitis, drug allergies.

      Type V – Autoimmune

      Graves’
      Myasthenia – IgM or IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Statistical Methods (1/1) 100%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
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