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Question 1
Incorrect
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A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.
Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?Your Answer: Metoclopramide 10 mg IV
Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV
Explanation:The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.
Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.
Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?
Your Answer: Uncoiling of a tube by pressurised gas
Correct Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched
Explanation:The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.
A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.
Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.
A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 3
Correct
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Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?
Your Answer: The trunks of the brachial plexus emerge from the lateral border of scalenus anterior
Explanation:The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.
The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.
The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.
The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.
Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:
Your Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants
Explanation:Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.
Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine
Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?
Your Answer: Brain
Correct Answer: Kidney
Explanation:Oxygen delivery is related to blood flow as most of the oxygen binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells, although a small amount is dissolved in the plasma. Blood flow per 100 g of tissue is greatest in the kidneys.
The following is the oxygen consumption rate of different organs in ml/minute/100g
Hepatoportal = 2.2
Kidney = 6.8
Brain = 3.7
Skin = 0.38
Skeletal muscle = 0.18
Heart = 11 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular
Explanation:Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14LECF comprises:
Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
Extravascular fluid = 11LExtravascular fluids comprises:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
Transcellular fluid = 0.5L -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.
It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding renal autoregulation, which of the following best describes its process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretion
Explanation:Two mechanisms are responsible for autoregulation of RBF and GFR: one mechanism that responds to changes in arterial pressure and another that responds to changes in [NaCl] in tubular fluid. Both regulate the tone of the afferent arteriole. The pressure-sensitive mechanism, the so-called myogenic mechanism, is related to an intrinsic property of vascular smooth muscle: the tendency to contract when stretched. Accordingly, when arterial pressure rises and the renal afferent arteriole is stretched, the smooth muscle contracts in response. Because the increase in resistance of the arteriole offsets the increase in pressure, RBF, and therefore GFR, remains constant.
The second mechanism responsible for autoregulation of GFR and RBF is the [NaCl]-dependent mechanism known as tubuloglomerular feedback. This mechanism involves a feedback loop in which a change in GFR leads to alteration in the concentration of NaCl in tubular fluid, which is sensed by the macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus and converted into signals that affect afferent arteriolar resistance and thus the GFR (Fig. 33.19). For example, when the GFR increases and causes [NaCl] in tubular fluid in the loop of Henle to rise, more NaCl enters the macula densa cells in this segment (Fig. 33.20). This leads to an increase in formation and release of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and adenosine (a metabolite of ATP) by macula densa cells, which causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and normalization of GFR. In contrast, when GFR and [NaCl] in tubule fluid decrease, less NaCl enters the macula densa cells, and both ATP and adenosine production and release decline. The fall in [ATP] and [adenosine] results in afferent arteriolar vasodilation, which returns GFR to normal. NO, a vasodilator produced by the macula densa, attenuates tubuloglomerular feedback, whereas angiotensin II enhances tubuloglomerular feedback. Thus the macula densa may release both vasoconstrictors (e.g., ATP and adenosine) and a vasodilator (e.g., NO) that oppose each other’s action at the level of the afferent arteriole. Production plus release of either vasoconstrictors or vasodilators ensures exquisite control over tubuloglomerular feedback.
Renal autoregulation, thus, reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal sodium excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring
Explanation:The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.
The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.
Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.
A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Antomy
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