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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident. On clinical examination:
Heart rate: 125 beats/min
Blood pressure: 120/105 mmHg.
On physical examination, his abdomen was found to be tense and tender. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the compensation of blood loss?Your Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic
Explanation:Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries mainly of those of skin, gut and kidney arterioles. This would cause and increase in total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure and as a result the perfusion of vital organs i.e. brain, heart and lungs are maintained.
Muscarinic M2 receptor also known as cholinergic receptor are located in heart, where they act to slow the heart rate down to normal sinus rhythm after negative stimulatory actions of parasympathetic nervous system. They also reduce contractile forces of the atrial cardiac muscle, and reduce conduction velocity of AV node. This could worsen the compensation.
Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptor result in dilation of smooth muscle as in bronchodilation.
Beta 3 adrenergic receptors are present on cell surface f both white and brown adipocytes and are responsible for lipolysis, thermogenesis, and relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle.
Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in inhibition of the release of noradrenaline in a form of negative feedback.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.
Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?Your Answer: A large molecule
Correct Answer: Highly ionised
Explanation:Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)
The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:
Protein binding
Degree of ionisation
Placental blood flow
Maternal and foetal blood pH
Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
Thickness of placental membrane
Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?
Your Answer: Causes analgesia without sedation
Correct Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl
Explanation:Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.
Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.
Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)
It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?
Your Answer: Adenosine
Explanation:Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.
Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.
Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?
Your Answer: Kava : immunostimulation
Correct Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.
Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.
The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.
The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.
Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.
Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Doxazosin
Explanation:Doxazosin is selective alpha 1 blocker (it causes less tachycardia than a non-selective alpha-blocker) and is the drug of choice for a patient with hypertension and benign hyperplasia of the prostate (BHP).
The major adverse effect of an alpha-blocker is first-dose hypotension.
Atenolol and Labetalol are beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.
Clonidine is an α2A-adrenergic agonist used to treat high blood pressure, ADHD, drug withdrawal (alcohol, opioids, or nicotine), menopausal flushing, diarrhea, spasticity, and certain pain conditions.
Methyldopa is a centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to manage hypertension alone or in combination with hydrochlorothiazide, and to treat hypertensive crises.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility
Explanation:The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.
Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.
Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of gentamicin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase
Clindamycin binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria and disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.
She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.
Which of the following is the cause for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal effects due to its ability to cross the placenta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atropine
Explanation:It is well known that atropine will cross the placenta and that maternal administration results in an increase in fetal heart rate.
Atropine is highly selective for muscarinic receptors. Its potency at nicotinic receptors is much lower, and actions at non-muscarinic receptors are generally undetectable clinically. Atropine does not distinguish among the M1, M2, and M3 subgroups of muscarinic receptors. In contrast, other antimuscarinic drugs are moderately selective for one or another of these subgroups. Most synthetic antimuscarinic drugs are considerably less selective than atropine in interactions with nonmuscarinic receptors.
A study on glycopyrrolate, a quaternary ammonium salt, was found to have a fetal: maternal serum concentration ratio of 0.4 indicating partial transfer.
Heparin, suxamethonium, and vecuronium do not cross the placenta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:
Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.
Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin
Explanation:The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.
0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).
It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.
Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute.
Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide
Explanation:Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.
The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.
Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bicarbonate
Explanation:The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).
Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.
The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.
Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane
Explanation:The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:
It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.
The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
Halothane 2.3
Desflurane 0.45
Sevoflurane 0.6
Nitrous oxide 0.47
Isoflurane 1.4Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.
Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.
The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.
In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease
Explanation:Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.
Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone
Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.
Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals.
Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.
Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.
Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.
Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.
Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.
Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%.
The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered.
What does this mean in terms of drug B?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy
Explanation:Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.
Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.
A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.
An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.
A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a cardiac arrest. The ECG monitor shows electrical activity that isn't pulsed.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate during resuscitation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The dose of intravenous adrenaline is 180 mcg
Explanation:To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:
(Age + 4) 2 = Weight
A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.
10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.
The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.
The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.
To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.
When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.
Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.
Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.
Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:
Dental patients undergoing procedures
Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.
To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
previous valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease
past history of IE, or
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.
Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin
Explanation:Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.
Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.
Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV
Explanation:The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.
Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.
Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure
Explanation:Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group
The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).
Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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At sea level, Sevoflurane is administered via a plenum vaporiser. 100 mL of the fresh gas flow is bypassed into the vaporising chamber. Temperature within the vaporising chamber is maintained at 20°C.
The following fresh gas flows approximates best for the delivery of 1% sevoflurane.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.7 L/minute
Explanation:The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:
Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
Ambient pressure (kPa) − SVP of agent (kPa)The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.
VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa − 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
VO = 26.6 mL26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.
2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
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