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Question 1
Incorrect
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An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister for his comments on incidence and prevalence. The minister had said that they both are two separate entities. It can be therefore inferred that the patient thinks that prevalence and incidence are the same thing.
Is he right?Your Answer: No. In chronic disease incidence is greater than prevalence.
Correct Answer: No. In chronic disease prevalence is greater than incidence.
Explanation:Only on rare occasions has it been found that the prevalence and incidence were same. Incidence can be greater than prevalence in acute cases only. In case of chronic diseases prevalence is far greater than incidence. One needs to have a deeper understanding of both the concepts to understand the health literature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Correct
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Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of a combined or monotherapy was conducted. A forest plot was used for the visual representation of the data.
Which of the following is true regarding forest plots?Your Answer: Forest plots can present data from multiple studies
Explanation:Being the part of a meta analysis, forest plots are more valued as evidence then randomised control trials.
The notion that forest plots can only be used if the results are substantial is not true. They are good indicators of the significance of the data. If the diamond intersects the central line, the data is rendered significant. It also aggregates means and confidence intervals from studies conducted in the past which makes the study much more reliable as errors associated with individual studies tend to have less of an impact in this way.
The suggestion that forest plots are primarily used for qualitative data is factually incorrect. Forest plots require numerical values to function.
All in all, forest plots help us in determining whether or not there is a significant trend in that particular field of study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 3
Correct
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A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.
Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?Your Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)
Explanation:Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder.
Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?Your Answer: Blue body, blue shoulder, full cylinder; 4400 KPa, single gas, requires a single stage pressure regulator
Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator
Explanation:The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.
The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.
In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.
The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.
The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 5
Correct
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A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.
Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?Your Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases
Explanation:A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
Heart rate: ≥110/min
Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.
A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
If mechanical ventilation is indicatedA peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.
An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 6
Correct
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The half-empty cylinder weighs 4.44 kg.
The tare weight of a nitrous oxide cylinder is 4 kg.
The molecular weight of nitrous oxide is 44gm.
Based on the data, how many litres of nitrous oxide remains in the cylinder for use?Your Answer: 224 litres
Explanation:The Tare weight of a cylinder is the weight when it is empty. So,
Weight of cylinder – tare weight = weight of remaining N2O (g).
4.44 kg – 4 kg = 0.44 kg
Here,
0.44 kg of nitrous oxide remains in the cylinderSince the molecular weight of nitrous oxide is 44 g and one mole of an ideal gas will occupy a volume of 22.4 litres at STP
Therefore amount left in the cylinder is several (gN2O/44) x 22.4 litres of N2O.(440/44) x 22.4 = 224 litres.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 7
Correct
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Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.
One terabyte is equal to which of the following numbers?Your Answer: 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
Explanation:To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:
1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:
Your Answer: Efflux of potassium
Correct Answer: Slow influx of calcium
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except:
Your Answer: Trousseau's sign is when inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm
Correct Answer: Serum calcium accounts for 10% of total body calcium stores
Explanation:Calcium is a very important ion and is involved in:
-cell homeostasis
-coagulation
-muscle contraction
-neuronal impulse transmission/membrane stabilization
-bone formation and skeletal strength
-secretion processes99% is found in bone and 1% in the plasma. Of the 1% that is in the plasma
-45% is free ionized calcium
-45% is bound to proteins, mainly Albumin
-10% is present as an anion complexReduced levels of IONIZED calcium give rise to features of hypocalcaemia , resulting in increased excitability of membranes. This results when the total calcium concentration goes below 2 mmol/L.
Features of mild to moderate hypocalcaemia are:
-paraesthesia (peri-oral, fingers)
-tetany
-spasm
-muscle cramps
-ECG changes (prolonged QT)
-Trousseau’s sign (inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm)
-Chvostek’s sign (tapping the facial nerve – cranial nerve VII – causes facial muscle twitch/spasm)Features of severe hypocalcaemia are:
-cardiogenic shock and congestive cardiac failure due to reduced myocardial contractility
respiratory distress due to bronchospasm, agitation, confusion, seizuresFeatures of hypercalcaemia (remember ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’):
-Abdominal pain
-Vomiting
-Constipation
-Polyuria
-Polydipsia
-Depression
-Lethargy
-Anorexia
-Weight loss
-Hypertension
-Confusion
-Pyrexia
-Calcification in the cornea
-Renal stones
-Renal failure
-Decreased Q-T interval
-Cardiac shock/collapse -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 72-year old man has presented to the emergency room with sweating, nausea, chest pain, and an ECG that shows ST elevation. The ST segment of the ECG corresponds to a period of slow calcium influx in the cardiac action potential.
This equates to which phase in the cardiac action potential?Your Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:Understanding of the cardiac action potential helps with the understanding of the ECG which measures the electrical activity of the heart. This is reflected in its waveform.
The rapid depolarisation phase is reflected in the QRS complex. After this phase comes the plateau phase which is represented by the ST segment. Lastly, the T wave shows repolarisation, phase 3.The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium. (ST segment)
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium. (T wave)
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?
Your Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance
Explanation:Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:
1) Delta opioid receptor
2) Mu opioid receptor
3) Kappa opioid receptor
4) Orphan receptor-like 1
They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.
Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).
However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm to enter the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer: T10
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 43-year old woman, presented to the emergency department. She has suffered trauma to her right orbital floor.
On examination, it is noted that her right eye is deviated upwards when compared to her left. She also has a deliberate tilt in her head to the left in an attempt to compensate for loss of intorsion.
This clinical sign is caused by damage to which of the following cranial nerves?Your Answer: Abducens nerve
Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve
Explanation:The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the fourth and smallest cranial nerve. It’s role is to provide somatic motor innervation of the superior oblique muscle which is responsible for oculomotion.
Injury to the trochlear nerve will result in vertical diplopia, which worsens when looking downwards or inwards. This diplopia presents as an upward deviation of the eye with a head tilt away from the site of the lesion.
The abducens nerve (CN VI) provides somatic motor innervation for the lateral rectus muscle which functions to abduct the eye. Injury to this nerve will cause diplopia and an inability to abduct the eye, causing the patient to have to rotate their head to look sideways.
The facial nerve (CN VII) provides sensory, motor and parasympathetic innervations. It’s motor aspect controls the muscles of facial expression. Damage will cause paralysis of facial expression.
The oculomotor nerve (CN III) provides motor and parasympathetic innervations. Its motor component controls most of the other extraocular muscles. Damage to it will result in ptosis, dilatation of the pupil and a down and out eye position.
The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN VI) is responsible for sensory innervation of skin, mucous membranes and sinuses of the upper face and scalp.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Correct
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The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly
Your Answer: Sodium
Explanation:The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:
ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?
Your Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders
Explanation:The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:
Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.
Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.
Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.
Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by nitroglycerine?
Your Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:Nitroglycerine is rapidly denitrated enzymatically in the smooth muscle cell to release the free radical nitric oxide (NO).
Released NO activated cytosolic guanylyl cyclase which increases cGMP (cyclin guanosine monophosphate) which causes dephosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) through a cGMP-dependent protein kinase.
Reduced availability of phosphorylated (active) MLCK interferes with activation of myosin and in turn, it fails to interact with actin to cause contraction. Consequently, relaxation occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication.
Which type of bias can be avoided by ensuring the patient and doctor are blinded?Your Answer: Confounding bias
Correct Answer: Expectation bias
Explanation:Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome. Therefore, by blinding the study we can eliminate expectation bias.
Recall bias is a systematic error that occurs when the study participants omit details or do not remember previous events or experiences accurately.
Verification can occur during investigations when there is a difference in testing strategy between groups of individuals, which might lead to biasness due to differing ways of verifying the disease of interest.
Nonresponse bias is the bias that occurs when the people who respond to a survey differ significantly from the people who do not respond to the survey.
A distortion that modifies an association between an exposure and an outcome because a factor is independently associated with the exposure and the outcome. Randomization is the best way to reduce the risk of confounding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 18
Correct
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Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables.
Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?Your Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple
Explanation:Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).
All of the other connections are non-linear.
For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.
A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.
A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.
The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 19
Correct
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Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.
Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?Your Answer: Bicarbonate
Explanation:The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).
Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.
The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:
Your Answer: Two dissimilar metals are joined in a Thermocouple
Correct Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Following a lumbar epidural for foot surgery, a patient has residual weakness on hip flexion but normal knee flexion/extension.
Which nerve roots are most likely implicated?Your Answer: L3/4
Correct Answer: L1/2/3
Explanation:Iliacus, and Psoas major are the most important muscles that produce flexion at the hip.
They are collectively called the iliopsoas muscle. The iliacus muscle originates from the ilium while the psoas major muscle takes its origin from the lumbar vertebrae and sacrum. Their insertion is the lesser trochanter of the femur. They work together to produce flexion and external rotation of the hip. The nerve supply is from branches of the lumbar plexus (L1, 2, 3) femoral nerve (L2, 3, 4) and short direct muscular branches (T12, L1, L2, L3 and L4).
Sartorius, Rectus femoris, Tensor fasciae latae, and Pectineus muscles are two-joint muscles acting at the knee and having less influence on hip flexion:
Rectus femoris and sartorius are involved in extension of the knee. They are supplied by branches of the femoral nerve.
Myotomes associated with key movement of the lower limb are:
L1/L2 – Hip flexion
L2/L3/L4 – Hip adduction, quadriceps (knee extension)
L4/L5 – Hip abduction
L5 – Great toe dorsiflexion.Since knee extension is not affected, L2, L3 and L4 are still intact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves an energy substrate and oxygen. For a patient, the respiratory quotient is calculated as 0.7.
Which of the following energy substrate combinations is the most likely in this patient's diet?Your Answer: Low carbohydrate, high fat and low protein
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the proportion of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed per unit of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars – RQ = 1
Fats – RQ = 0.7
Proteins – RQ is 0.9
Ethyl alcohol – RQ = 0.67 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The following statements are about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is true?
Your Answer: The FEV1 is increased
Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid usage slows the decline in health status
Explanation:Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an obstructive, inflammatory lung condition. It encompasses symptoms of emphysema, chronic bronchitis and asthma.
Inhaling high dose steroids are prescribed to treat COPD. They are effective at reducing symptoms and improving lung function. They also work to reduce the number of hospitalisations by decreasing the number of acute exacerbation events. Despite providing effective symptom relief, it cannot slow down the decline of FEV1 as COPD is an irreversible condition.
COPD reduces the FEV1 measurements, as well as the FEV1/FVC ratio.
Breathlessness is a major COPD symptom and can occur at any point in the disease progression, including at an FEV1 >50%.
FEV1 is used in COPD staging, and it is classed as follows:
>80%: Mild or stage I
50 – 79%: Moderate or stage II
30 – 49%: Severe or stage III
<30%: Very severe or stage IV
Patients with mild COPD are usually able to manage their condition on their own, however once the disease progresses to moderate, more GP visits are required, with those in the severe category requiring frequent hospitalisation.Asthma is correlated to an increase in transfer factor. COPD (emphysema) is correlated to a decreased transfer factor.
COPD predisposes to eventual pulmonary hypertension as a result of an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.
Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?Your Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane
Explanation:The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:
It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.
The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
Halothane 2.3
Desflurane 0.45
Sevoflurane 0.6
Nitrous oxide 0.47
Isoflurane 1.4Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.
Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.
The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.
In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?Your Answer: Neonate
Explanation:The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosisYoung children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.
At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.
When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.
Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it.
What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?Your Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus
Explanation:Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.
The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to be used for an arterial blood gas?
Your Answer: Mid inguinal point
Explanation:The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?
Your Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis
Explanation:The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient?
Your Answer: Reduced risk of droplet infection
Correct Answer: Reduction in gas flow resistance
Explanation:Smallest drops reach not only the upper but also the lower respiratory tracks. As a result, the ultrasonic nebulizer is most efficient for the therapy of pulmonary diseases and stands out as a robust and reliable support within the clinical setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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