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  • Question 1 - Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).

    Which of the following PTH actions is...

    Correct

    • Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).

      Which of the following PTH actions is most likely to cause calcium to be released from bone?

      Your Answer: Indirect stimulation of osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      The hormone parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the receptor parathyroid hormone type 1 (PTH1-Rc) are important regulators of blood calcium homeostasis.

      PTH can cause a rapid release of calcium from the matrix in bone, but it also affects long-term calcium metabolism by acting directly on bone-forming osteoblasts (by binding to PTH1-Rc) and indirectly on bone-resorbing osteoclasts.

      PTH causes changes in the synthesis and/or activity of several proteins, including osteoclast-differentiating factor, also known as TRANCE or RANKL, when it acts on osteoblasts.

      RANK receptors are found on the cell surfaces of osteoclast precursors. The osteoclasts are activated when RANKL binds to the RANK receptors. Osteoclasts lack PTH receptors, whereas osteoblasts do. Osteoclasts are activated indirectly when the RANK receptor binds to the RANKL secreted by osteoblasts, resulting in bone resorption. PTH1 receptors are found in osteoclasts, but they are few.

      PTH activates G-protein coupled receptors in all target cells via adenylate cyclase.

      The PTH2 receptor is most abundant in the nervous system and pancreas, but it is not a calcium metabolism regulator. It is abundant in the septum, midline thalamic nuclei, several hypothalamic nuclei, and the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, as well as the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia. Expression in pancreatic islet somatostatin cells is the most prominent on the periphery.

      The distribution of the receptor is being used to test functional hypotheses. It may play a role in pain modulation and hypothalamic releasing-factor secretion control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      1266.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg....

    Correct

    • After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?

      Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.

      Your Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This...

    Correct

    • A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?

      Your Answer: -90mV

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the number of collateral circulations that exist for alternate pathways for venous return?

      Your Answer: Four

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava is the main vein bringing blood back to the heart. It can get partially or completely blocked by various causes, the most common being due to malignant tumours of the mediastinum.

      There are collateral pathways that form in long-standing cases with 60% or more stenosis and continue venous drainage in cases of superior vena obstruction. The collaterals are classified into four as follows:

      1. The azygos-hemiazygos pathway
      Azygos, hemiazygos, intercostal, and lumbar veins.

      2. The internal and external mammary pathway
      internal mammary, superior epigastric, and inferior epigastric veins and superficial veins of the thorax.

      3. The lateral thoracic pathway
      Lateral thoracic, thoracoepigastric, superficial circumflex, long saphenous, and femoral veins to collateralize to the IVC.

      4. The vertebral pathway
      Innominate, vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, and sacral veins to collateralize to the azygos and internal mammary pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?

      Your Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis

      Explanation:

      Ligamentum venosum is an anterior relation of the liver: The ligamentum venosum, the fibrous remnant of the ductus venosus of the fetal circulation, lies posterior to the liver. It lies in the fossa for ductus venosus that separates the caudate lobe and the left lobe of the liver.

      The portal triad contains three important tubes: 1. Proper hepatic artery 2. Hepatic portal vein 3. Bile ductules It also contains lymphatic vessels and a branch of the vagus nerve.

      The bare area of the liver is a large triangular area that is devoid of any peritoneal covering. The bare area is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose connective tissue. This nonperitoneal area is created by a wide separation between the coronary ligaments.

      The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures (except the hepatic veins) and hepatic ducts enter or leave the liver via the porta hepatis. It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve. The caudate lobe (segment I) lies in the lesser sac on the inferior surface of the liver between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left, and the porta hepatis in front

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      292.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the name of the space between the vocal cords? ...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the space between the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Rima glottidis

      Explanation:

      The rima glottidis is a narrow, triangle-shaped opening between the true vocal cords.

      The vocal folds (true vocal cords) control sound production. The apex of each fold projects medially into the laryngeal cavity.

      Each vocal fold includes these vocal ligaments:

      Vocalis muscle (most medial part of thyroarytenoid muscle)

      The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes and rima glottidis.

      The rima glottidis is the narrowest potential site within the larynx, as the vocal cords may be completely opposed, forming a complete barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer: Post tetanic count of 5

      Explanation:

      A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.

      Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.

      During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5 min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is...

    Correct

    • A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.

      At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?

      Your Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL

      Explanation:

      In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:

      C = C0. e^-kt

      Where:
      C=drug concentration,
      C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
      k = rate constant and
      t = time.

      The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:

      The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
      The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
      The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true. ...

    Correct

    • Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true.

      Your Answer: Produces glycoproteins

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus are connected by the pituitary stalk. It contains in the pituitary sella and has the optic chiasm and hypothalamus as superior relations.

      The anterior pituitary produces thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) . These hormones are Glycoproteins and share a common alpha subunit with unique beta subunits.

      The secretion of pituitary hormones are pulsatile. Examples are LH, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and growth hormone (GH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in casualty, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The intern wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in the patients ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?

      Your Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.

      The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.

      Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
      Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
      Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangle

      Regarding the other options:
      The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
      The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
      The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in...

    Correct

    • Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?

      Your Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output

      Explanation:

      While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.

      Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.

      Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant...

    Correct

    • A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?

      Your Answer: aPTT

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.

      D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.

      A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.

      Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.

      Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.

      Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness? ...

    Correct

    • Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness?

      Your Answer: Change in stroke volume following passive straight leg raise

      Explanation:

      The passive leg raising (PLR) manoeuvre is a method of altering left and right ventricular preload and it is done with real-time measurement of stroke volume. It is a simple, quick, relatively unbiased, and accurate bedside test to guide fluid management and avoid fluid overload.

      Pulse pressure variation (PPV), Stroke volume variation (SVV), superior vena cava diameter variation (threshold 36%) and end-expiratory occlusion test are used for dynamic tests of fluid responsiveness.

      PPV is derived peripherally from the arterial pressure waveform.

      Stroke volume variation (SVV) can be derived peripherally through pulse contour analysis of the arterial waveform. PPV and SVV have a threshold of 12% but since they are not used in patients who have cardiac arrhythmias, are spontaneous breathing, and in ventilated patients with low lung compliance and tidal volumes, they are of limited value.

      The tests of fluid responsiveness’ accuracy is determined by calculating the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (UROC) obtained by plotting the sensitivity of the parameter in predicting fluid responsiveness vs. 1-specificity.

      Under optimal conditions, the ability to determine the need for fluid is best with PPV>SVV>LVEDA>CVP.

      Central venous pressure (CVP) is a static test of preload (not preload responsiveness) and a key determinant of cardiac function. The left ventricular end-diastolic area (LVEDA) a static test of fluid responsiveness, is derived using echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed...

    Incorrect

    • During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?

      Your Answer: Stratification

      Correct Answer: Randomisation

      Explanation:

      Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.

      For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip...

    Incorrect

    • While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.

      What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence N-acetyl cysteine empirically

      Correct Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals

      Explanation:

      After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      166.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In the adrenal gland: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the adrenal gland:

      Your Answer: The only glucocorticoid produced is cortisol

      Correct Answer: Catecholamine release is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission

      Explanation:

      The adrenal (suprarenal) gland is composed of two main parts: the adrenal cortex, which is the largest and outer part of the gland, and the adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex consists of three zones: 1. Zona glomerulosa (outermost layer) is responsible for the production of mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which regulates blood pressure and electrolyte balance. 2. Zona fasciculata (middle layer) is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids, predominantly cortisol, which increases blood sugar levels via gluconeogenesis, suppresses the immune system, and aids in metabolism. It also produces 11-deoxycorticosterone and corticosterone in addition to cortisol. 3. Zona reticularis (innermost layer) is responsible for the production of gonadocorticoids, mainly dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), which serves as the starting material for many other important hormones produced by the adrenal gland, such as oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and cortisol. It is also responsible for administering these hormones to the reproductive regions of the body.

      The adrenal medulla majorly secretes epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine in small quantity. Both hormones have similar functions and initiate the flight or fight response.

      Catecholamine is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission through changes in sympathetic nervous system (T5 – T11), being increased during stress and hypoglycaemia.

      Blood supply to the adrenal gland is by these three arteries: superior suprarenal arteries, middle suprarenal artery and inferior suprarenal artery. Venous drainage is via the suprarenal vein to the left renal vein or directly to the inferior vena cava on the right side. There is no portal (venous) system between cortex and medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.

      Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?

      Your Answer: Mono-N-desmethyl-tramadol

      Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume

      Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity

      Explanation:

      The functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration. It is determined by opposing forces of the expanding chest wall and the elastic recoil of the lung. A normal FRC = 1.7 to 3.5 L. It a marker for lung function, and, during this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.

      FRC cannot be measured by spirometry because it contains the residual volume.

      Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and vital capacity can be measured directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex...

    Incorrect

    • When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Dexmedetomidine

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine

      Explanation:

      The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

      The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

      Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

      Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

      Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

      A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

      Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

      A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?

      Your Answer: An x descent due to atrial emptying as blood enters the ventricle

      Correct Answer: An a wave due to atrial contraction

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial...

    Incorrect

    • In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial blood gas results is likely to be seen?

      Your Answer: pH = 7.34
      PaCO2 = 7.2 kPa
      HCO3 = 29

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      During normal tissue metabolism, there is production of CO2 (acid) which is then expired by the lungs. If metabolism switches from aerobic to anaerobic due to a lack of oxygen, the tissues are unable to completely oxidise sugars to CO2. As a consequence, the sugars can only be partially oxidised to lactic acid. Since lactic acid cannot be expired by the lungs, it remains in the circulation leading to metabolic acidosis.

      Also, normal tissue metabolism leads to the production of some amount of acid from the breakdown of proteins. These acids are excreted from the body by kidney filtration. Renal failure will therefore results in acidosis after several days.

      An increased acidosis stimulates the brain’s respiratory centres to increase the respiratory rate. This lowers the CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in its acidity. Renal excretion removes the excess acid, resulting in a normal pH, and a reduced PaCO2 and HCO3.

      pH PaCO2 (kPa) HCO3
      Compensated respiratory acidosis 7.34 7.2 29
      Acute respiratory acidosis 7.25 7.3 22
      Compensated metabolic acidosis 7.34 3.6 14
      Metabolic acidosis 7.21 5.3 15
      Metabolic alkalosis 7.51 5.1 30

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?...

    Incorrect

    • At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?

      Your Answer: 0 nanomol/L

      Correct Answer: 100 nanomol/L

      Explanation:

      pH is the negative log to the base 10 of hydrogen ion concentration:

      So, what power produces the answer?

      pH = – log10 [H+]

      Making [H+] the subject:

      [H+] = 10-pH

      Substituting, [H+] = 10-7

      One nanomole = 1 x 10-9 or 0.000000001

      10-7 = 1x 0.0000001 or 10 x 0.00000001 or 100 x 0.000000001

      100 nanomole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily is reviewed in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

      She has required three increases in her thyroid replacement therapy in the last six months.

      Her thyroid function tests are as follows:

      TSH 11 (normal range 0.4-4mU/L)
      T3 20 (normal range 9-25mU/L)
      T4 6.2 (normal range 3.5-7.8mU/L)

      What will explain this biochemical picture?

      Your Answer: Poor compliance with medication

      Explanation:

      In patients with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, serial TSH measurements are used to determine the adequacy of treatment with thyroid hormones . changes in TSH levels becoming apparent after approximately eight weeks of therapy with thyroid hormone replacement. Change in T3/T4 levels are seen before changes in TSH .

      In patients taking thyroid replacement therapy, the most frequent reason for persistent elevation of serum TSH is poor compliance. Patients who do not regularly take their L-thyroxine try and catch up just before a visit to a clinician for blood test.

      Tissue-level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone is caused by mutation in the gene controlling a receptor for T3 and is rare.

      Reduced responsiveness of target tissues to thyroid hormone aka resistance to thyroid hormones (rTH) occurs when there is a mutation in the thyroid hormone receptor ? gene. It is a rare autosomal dominant inherited syndrome of reduced end-organ responsiveness to thyroid hormone and has two types:

      Generalised resistance (GrTH)
      Pituitary resistance (PrTH)

      Patients with rTH have normal or slightly elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, elevated serum free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) concentrations.

      Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroxine include:

      Warfarin
      Rifampin
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbital
      St John’s Wort
      Carbamazepine

      These drugs lower circulating thyroid hormones and would be associated with a raised TSH but low T3/T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.

      Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.

      Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test.

      Which type of bias is that?

      Your Answer: Attention bias

      Correct Answer: Work-up bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.

      Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.

      Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.

      Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      102.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?

      Your Answer: The transducer should be at the same height as the catheter insertion point

      Correct Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer

      Explanation:

      Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.

      It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.

      The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).

      Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient...

    Incorrect

    • A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.

      At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Explanation:

      Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).

      The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.

      Calculations can be made as follows:

      Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
      2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
      2% of 100 = 2 kPa

      Altitude, pressure 50 kPa
      4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
      4% of 50 = 2 kPa

      High pressure at 200 kPa
      1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
      1% of 200 = 2 kPa

      Sevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.

      Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.

      Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.

      Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.

      A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is...

    Incorrect

    • Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is represented by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - central venous pressure (CVP)/cardiac output (CO)

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is a derived value based on:

      SVR = (MAP-CVP)/CO x 80

      = (60 -10)/5 x 80 = 800 dynes.s.cm-5

      A correction factor of 80 is needed in converting mmHg to dynes.s.cm-5
      Normal values is between 700 -1600 dynes.s.cm-5

      Pulmonary resistance (PVR) = (MPAP-PCWP)/CO x 80

      = (10 – 5)/5 x 80 = 80 dynes.s.cm-5

      To account for body size, cardiac index (CI) can be used instead of CO. CI = CO/body surface area (m2) or mL/minute/m2.
      N/B: either MAP and CVP, or MPAP and PCWP are used in calculation to get dynes.s.cm-5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ADH

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (6/7) 86%
Statistical Methods (2/3) 67%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (4/4) 100%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Physiology (2/2) 100%
Clinical Measurement (2/3) 67%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/1) 100%
Passmed