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Question 1
Correct
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All of the following are autosomal recessive conditions EXCEPT which one?
Your Answer: Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfect is an autosomal dominant condition. All the rest of the options are autosomal recessive conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview, it was noted that she has been having unprotected intercourse with her husband regularly for the past year but has not become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her menses occur every 28 to 30 days and they last 4 to 5 days. A day before her menses, she has episodes of severe lower abdominal pain that is only partially relieved by ibuprofen.
Further history taking was done and revealed that she was treated for gonococcal cervicitis at age 19. The patient also takes a prenatal vitamin every day and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her 31-year-old husband recently had semen analysis and his results were normal.
Further examination was done and the following are her results:
Blood pressure is 126/70mmHg
Pulse is 85/min
BMI is 31 kg/m2
Upon further examination and observation, it was revealed that she has a small uterus with a cervix that appears laterally displaced and there is accompanying pain upon cervical manipulation.
Which of the following is most likely considered the cause of the patient’s infertility?Your Answer: Unicornuate uterus
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecologic disease characterized by the development and presence of histological elements like endometrial glands and stroma in anatomical positions and organs outside of the uterine cavity. The main clinical manifestations of the disease are chronic pelvic pain and impaired fertility. The localization of endometriosis lesions can vary, with the most commonly involved focus of the disease the ovaries followed by the posterior broad ligament, the anterior cul-de-sac, the posterior cul-de-sac, and the uterosacral ligament.
The clinical presentation of the disease differs in women and may be unexpected not only in the presentation but also in the duration. Clinicians usually suspect and are more likely to diagnose the disease in females presenting with the typical symptomatology such as dyspareunia, namely painful sexual intercourse, pelvic pain during menstruation (dysmenorrhea), pain in the urination (dysuria), defecation (dyschezia), and/or infertility. The pain is usually characterized as chronic, cyclic, and progressive (exacerbating over time). Furthermore, some women suffering from endometriosis experience hyperalgesia, a phenomenon, when even with the application of a nonpainful stimulus, an intolerable painful reaction is released. This condition indicates neuropathic pain.
Tenderness on vaginal examination, palpable nodules in the posterior fornix, adnexal masses, and immobility of the uterus are diagnostically indicating findings of endometriosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up. She is about 7-8 weeks pregnant and enquiries about antenatal screening tests as she is concerned that her baby might have chromosomal abnormalities.
Among the following results, which would indicate further assessment for trisomy 21?Your Answer: Increased alpha-fetoprotein
Correct Answer: Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A)
Explanation:Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) in the first trimester of pregnancy is an indication to carry out further diagnostic testing for Down syndrome.
Antenatal tests available for screening Down syndrome are divided into two types:
– Screening tests includes maternal serum screening and ultrasound which are safe to conduct with relatively low predictive values.
– Diagnostic tests like chorionic villous sampling and amniocentesis are confirmative but carries higher risk of miscarriage as 1 in 100 and 1 in 200 respectively.a) Serum screening tests for Down syndrome during first-trimester includes:
1. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) will be decreased in case of Down syndrome.
2. Free ß-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) will be increased in cases of Down syndrome.
If these screening tests are combined with first-trimester ultrasound nuchal translucency, it is found to be more accurate than doing only one of these tests.b) Second-trimester serum screening tests for identifying Down syndrome:
1.Alpha-fetoprotein will be decreased.
2.Unconjugated oestriol will be decreased.
3.Free ß-HCG will be increased
4.Inhibin A will be increased.
These tests combined with maternal age and ultrasound results will provide more accurate predictive values. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture
Explanation:Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.
The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.
The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.
Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal Cortex
Explanation:The substructures of the nephrons are mainly located within the cortex. The JGA sits next to the glomerulus in the cortex (click on the magnifying glass of the image to see the arrangement). They play an important role in blood pressure homeostasis as the juxtaglomerular cells produce renin. The descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle and collecting ducts have sections within both the cortex and medulla
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her menstrual cycle should blood be collected for progesterone, if she has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Day 21
Explanation:Maximum levels of progesterone are detected at day 21 of 28 days in the menstrual cycle, assuming that ovulation has occurred at day 14. A value of >30nmol/l indicates an ovulatory cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months
Explanation:Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.
Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their contraception method, refraining from sexual activity when a pregnancy might otherwise be possible. They want to avoid having a child for the next two years. For the past twelve months, the lady has kept track of her cycles, which have ranged from 26 to 29 days in duration. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17,
Explanation:To provide suitable advice to this couple, the candidate must be aware of the following facts:
Because the luteal phase is 14 days long, regardless of the follicular phase length, ovulation happens 14 days before the period.
As a result, ovulation in this lady might have occurred as early as day 12 or as late as day 15 of her cycle.
In the presence of adequate and normal cervical mucus, sperm survival has been demonstrated to be far longer than previously thought, with intercourse occurring up to 6 days before the known period of ovulation, resulting in pregnancy.
Intercourse should be stopped six days before the earliest ovulation in this woman (i.e. on day six).
– It is generally accepted that the ovulated egg can be fertilised for approximately 24-36 hours.
Intercourse should not be restarted for at least two days after the most recent ovulation.
This would be day 17 for this woman.
Between days 6 and 17 of the cycle, abstinence is required. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binds to 30S subunit of microbial ribosomes blocking attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site on the ribosome
Explanation:Tetracycline is classified as a broad spectrum antibiotic. It is a bacteriostatic inhibitor of protein synthesis acting at the ribosomal level. Tetracycline binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit preventing the binding of the aminoacidic charged T-RNA to the ribosome-mRNA complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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