-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?
Your Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders
Explanation:The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:
Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.
Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.
Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.
Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 68-year old female is brought to the Emergency Room for abdominal pain. Medical history revealed that she is on long-term warfarin therapy for deep vein thrombosis.
Upon further investigation, the patient is hypotensive at 80/60 mmHg, and an abdominal mass is palpable on the umbilical area. An initial diagnosis of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is made. Moreover, blood tests show an international normalised ratio (INR) of 4.2.
Which of the following products should be initially transfused or administered to the patient to reverse the anticoagulation?Your Answer: Prothrombin complex
Explanation:Warfarin prevents reductive metabolism of the inactive vitamin K epoxide back to its active hydroquinone form. Thus, warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors: X, IX, VII, II (prothrombin), and of the anticoagulants protein C and protein S. The therapeutic range for oral anticoagulant therapy is defined in terms of an international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the prothrombin time ratio (patient prothrombin time/mean of normal prothrombin time for lab)ISI, where the ISI exponent refers to the International Sensitivity Index and is dependent on the specific reagents and instruments used for the determination. A prolonged INR is widely used as an indication of integrity of the coagulation system in liver disease and other disorders, it has been validated only in patients in steady state on chronic warfarin therapy.
Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) is used to replace congenital or acquired vitamin-K deficiency warfarin-induced anticoagulant effect, particularly in the emergent setting.
Intravenous vitamin K has a slower onset of action compared to PCC, but is useful for long term therapy.
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) prepared from freshly donated blood is the usual source of the vitamin K-dependent factors and is the only source of factor V. The factors needed, however, are found in small quantities compared to PCC.
Cryoprecipitate is indicated for hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia, von Willebrand disease, haemophilia A, factor XIII deficiency, and management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five minutes is indicated during in-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation (VF) following three DC shocks.
Which of the following indicates the most important reason for using epinephrine?Your Answer: Preferential distribution of blood to the coronary and cerebral circulation
Explanation:Epinephrine is used for the treatment of cardiac arrest because it causes vasoconstriction via the alpha-adrenergic (?1) receptor. This vasoconstriction increases cerebral and coronary blood flow by increasing mean arterial, aortic diastolic, and cerebral pressures. Furthermore, epinephrine is also a?1 and ?2 adrenoreceptor agonist which shows inotrope, chronotrope, and bronchodilator effects.
– Adrenaline is also used to prolong the duration of action and decrease the systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
– Preferred route of adrenaline in patients with cardiac arrest is i.v. followed by intra-osseous and endotracheal -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal cord?
Your Answer: There are 31 pairs of spinal roots
Explanation:The cylindrical structure(spine), starts from the foramen magnum in medulla oblongata at the skull’s base. Its length varies in gender with men having 45cm and women having up to 43 cm. The spine contains 31 pairs of spinal nerves, named according to the spinal region:
– 8 cervical nerve pairs ( C1-C8)
– 12 thoracic nerve pairs ( T1-T12)
– 5 lumbar nerve pairs (L1-L5)
– 5 sacral nerves (S1-S5) and
– 1 coccygeal nerve pair.
These spinal nerves are classified as the peripheral nervous system though they branch from the spinal cord and central nervous system. They interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate the motor and sensory information from the peripheral’s region. As the nerves emerges form the spinal cords they are known as rootlets. They join to form nerve roots, and depending on their position, we have anterior nerve roots and posterior.The spinal cord is supplied by two posterior and one anterior spinal arteries which anastomoses caudally, at the conus medullaris.
The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord and medulla. Disruption of the anterior spinal artery supply is characterised by ischaemia or infarction of motor tracts (corticospinal) and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.
The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior columns (posterior third of the spinal cord). Infarction of the posterior columns results in the loss of proprioceptive, vibration and two-point discrimination.
The spinal cord normally ends at the level of L1 or L2 in an adult and L3 in a newborn.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?
Your Answer: Internal elastic lamina
Correct Answer: External elastic lamina
Explanation:Blood vessels (except capillaries and venules) have three distinctive layers (innermost to outermost):
1. Tunica intima
2. Tunica media
3. Tunica adventitiaThe tunica media contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima layer by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
What can an outbreak of flu that has spread globally be termed as?
Your Answer: Pandemic
Explanation:An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.
An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.
A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute currently.
Your senior attending explains that the slow heart rate is due to the damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. His ventricles are being paced by the AV node alone.
What artery supplies the AV node in the majority of patients?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.
The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.
The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?
Your Answer: Heliox
Explanation:Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:
1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpO₂ level of 94 98%.
2. Use high-dose inhaled ?₂ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
intravenous ?₂ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.
Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally administered intravenously to a 4-year-old boy?
Your Answer: 20 mg codeine
Explanation:To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:
(age + 4) 2 = weight
A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.
The following are the appropriate doses of the drugs listed above:
Gentamicin (once daily) – 5-7 mg/kg = 90-126 mg and subsequent dose modified according to plasma levels
Ondansetron – 0.1 mg/kg, but a maximum of 4 mg as a single dose = 1.8 mg
Codeine should be administered orally at a dose of 1 mg/kg rather than intravenously, as the latter can cause ‘dangerous’ hypotension due to histamine release.
15 mg/kg paracetamol = 270 mg orally or intravenously (a loading dose of 20 mg/kg, or 360 mg, is sometimes recommended, which is not far short of the doses listed above).
Cefuroxime – the initial intravenous dose is 20 mg/kg (360 mg) depending on the indication (again, similar to the dose given in the answer options above). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.
What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?Your Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine
Explanation:Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.
It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.
The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.
Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.
In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
In reference to confounding variables, which among the given is not true?
Your Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation
Explanation:Randomisation can be used to provide control over the confounding variables during the design stage of a study however during analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. Since the question asks for the information that is factually incorrect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).
At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?Your Answer: Heart
Explanation:At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.
The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.
CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.
CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 66-year-old man with a haemorrhagic stroke is admitted to the medical admissions unit.
He has been taking warfarin for a long time because of atrial fibrillation. His INR at the time of admission was 9.1.
Which of the following treatment options is the most effective in managing his condition?Your Answer: Prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:Haemorrhage, including intracranial bleeding, is a common and potentially fatal side effect of warfarin therapy, and reversing anticoagulation quickly and completely can save lives. When complete and immediate correction of the coagulation defect is required in orally anticoagulated patients with life-threatening haemorrhage, clotting factor concentrates are the only viable option.
For rapid reversal of vitamin K anticoagulants, prothrombin complex concentrates (PCC) are recommended. They contain the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and are derived from human plasma. They can be used as an adjunctive therapy in patients with major bleeding because they normalise vitamin K dependent clotting factors and restore haemostasis.
The most common treatments are fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. The efficacy of this approach is questioned due to the variable content of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in FFP and the effects of dilution. Significant intravascular volume challenge, as well as the possibility of rare complications like transfusion-associated lung injury or blood-borne infection, are all potential issues.
To avoid anaphylactic reactions, vitamin K should be given as a slow intravenous infusion over 30 minutes. Regardless of the route of administration, the reversal of INRs with vitamin K can take up to 24 hours to reach its maximum effect.
Reversal of anticoagulation in patients with warfarin-associated intracranial haemorrhage may be considered with factor VIIa (recombinant), but its use is controversial. There are concerns about thromboembolic events following treatment, as well as questions about assessing efficacy in changes in the INR. If the drug is to be administered, patients should be screened for an increased risk of thrombosis before the drug is given.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen delivery to tissues?
Your Answer: Left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve
Explanation:Smoking is a major risk factor associated with perioperative respiratory and cardiovascular complications. Evidence also suggests that cigarette smoking causes imbalance in the prostaglandins and promotes vasoconstriction and excessive platelet aggregation. Two of the constituents of cigarette smoke, nicotine and carbon monoxide, have adverse cardiovascular effects. Carbon monoxide increases the incidence of arrhythmias and has a negative ionotropic effect both in animals and humans.
Smoking causes an increase in carboxyhaemoglobin levels, resulting in a leftward shift in which appears to represent a risk factor for some of these cardiovascular complications.
There are two mechanisms responsible for the leftward shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve when carbon monoxide is present in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a direct effect on oxyhaemoglobin, causing a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and carbon monoxide also reduces the formation of 2,3-DPG by inhibiting glycolysis in the erythrocyte. Nicotine, on the other hand, has a stimulatory effect on the autonomic nervous system. The effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system last less than 30 min.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.
Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.
Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?
Your Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.
The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.
The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.
The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.
The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:
Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.
Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?Your Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin
Explanation:The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.
0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).
It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.
Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?
Your Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow
Explanation:The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:
Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.
The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:
When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.
Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What structure lies deepest within the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Correct Answer: Popliteal artery
Explanation:The popliteal fossa is the shallow, diamond-shaped depression located in the back of the knee joint.
The structures that lie within in from superficial to deep are:
The tibial and common fibular nerve: Most superficial. They arise from the sciatic nerve.
The popliteal vein
The popliteal artery: Lies deepest. It arises from the femoral arteryBoundaries of the popliteal fossa:
Laterally
Biceps femoris above, lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris belowMedially
Semimembranosus and semitendinosus above, medial head of gastrocnemius belowFloor
Popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of knee joint and popliteus muscleRoof
Superficial and deep fascia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.
What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?Your Answer: Euler's number
Correct Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x
Explanation:The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).
A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.
Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.
A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures.
Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?Your Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
Explanation:When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:
Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):
If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):
If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)
Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)
If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?
Your Answer: Higher boiling point
Correct Answer: Less biodegradation
Explanation:Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.
Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).
Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.
Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.
Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)
The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.
What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?Your Answer: S (silent)
Explanation:Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.
Other BChE phenotypes are the following:
Usual (U)
Atypical (A)
Fluoride-resistant (F) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?
Your Answer: Class III equipment are double-insulated
Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient
Explanation:The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.
Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
(i) electrocution
(ii) burns
(iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.
Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.
Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
Type B:
can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
Type BF
Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
Type CF
Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
1 mA – tingling pain
5 mA – pain
15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose.
Which of the following best describes its make-up?Your Answer: Osmolarity 293 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 40 g
Correct Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g
Explanation:30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.
As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.
Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes?
Your Answer: Type A and type B are found in the liver and brain
Explanation:Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.
They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.
There are 2 different types:
Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical landmarks refers to the base of an equilateral triangle is formed by the sacral hiatus?
Your Answer: A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines
Explanation:The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.
In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.
A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.
A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.
The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.
Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?Your Answer: 0.5% bupivacaine (20 ml)
Correct Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)
Explanation:Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia.
A direct inguinal hernia passes through Hesselbach's triangle. What forms the medial edge of this triangle?Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Explanation:The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach’s is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vesselsDirect inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
The Kappa statistic (aka Cohen's kappa coefficient) can be used to measure which of the following?
Your Answer: Inter-rater reliability
Explanation:The Kappa Statistic or Cohen’s Kappa is a statistical measure of inter-rater reliability for categorical variables. It is used when two raters both apply a criterion based on a tool to assess whether or not some condition occur. A good example can be two doctors rating individuals for diabetes occurrence on the basis of symptoms.
It gives a quantitative measure of the magnitude of agreement between observers.
Kappa can take any value between 0 and 1. 0 implies the observers are in complete disagreement and a value of 1 implies complete agreement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)