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Question 1
Correct
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Suppose the afterload and myocardial contractility remain unchanged, which of the following factors in the pressure-volume loop indicates an increase in the preload of the left ventricle?
Your Answer: Increased end-diastolic volume
Explanation:If the afterload and myocardiac contractility remains unchanged, an increase in the preload can be attributed to an increase in end-diastolic volume.
Preload can be defined as the initial stretching of the cardiac myocytes prior to contraction. Preload, therefore, is related to muscle sarcomere length. Because sarcomere length cannot be determined in the intact heart, other indices of preload are used such as ventricular end-diastolic volume or pressure. When venous return to the heart is increased, the end-diastolic pressure and volume of the ventricles are increased, which stretches the sarcomeres, thereby increasing their preload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria?
Your Answer: Chloral hydrate
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.
Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following facts about IgE is true?
Your Answer: Is increased acutely in an asthmatic attack
Correct Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals
Explanation:Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.
The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.
IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.
Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented with bowel perforation. During the surgery, the marginal artery of Drummond is encountered and preserved.
Which of the following two arteries fuse to form the marginal artery of Drummond?Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The arteries of the midgut (superior mesenteric artery) and hindgut (inferior mesenteric artery) give off terminal branches that form an anastomotic vessel called the marginal artery of Drummond. It runs in the inner margins of the colon and gives off short terminal branches to the bowel wall.
The marginal artery is formed by the main branches and arcades arising from the ileocolic, right colic, middle colic, and left colic arteries. It is most apparent in the ascending, transverse, and descending colons and poorly developed in the sigmoid colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan (MRI). The presence of metal implants must be ruled out prior to the scan.
In a strong magnetic field, which of the following metals is the safest?Your Answer: Chromium
Explanation:Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.
Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.
Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.
When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.
Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of these statements is true about spirometry?
Your Answer: A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes
Explanation:Functional residual capacity (FRC) is 1.7 to 3.5L/kg
A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes. The total lung capacity (TLC) is total sum of the volume of gas present in all lung compartments upon maximum inspiration. It is represented mathematically as:
Total lung capacity (TLC) = Vital capacity (VC) + Residual volume (RV)
The residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas still present within the lung post maximum exhalation. It cannot be measured by spirometry, but can be using a body plethysmograph and also with the helium dilution technique.
Closing capacity (CC) is the volume of gas within the lungs at which small airways close upon expiration. It increases with age and is especially important when it surpasses the FRC as it causes changes in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia.
In the supine position, a patient with a normal body mass index and no history of lung pathology, the CC equals the FRC at approximately 44, and at approximately 66 at standing position. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 7
Correct
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Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.
Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.
Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage.
On admission, her GCS was 7. She has been intubated, sedated and is being ventilated and is waiting for a CT scan. Her Blood pressure is 140/70mmHg.
The arterial blood gas analysis shows the following:
pH 7.2 (7.35 - 7.45)
PaO2 70 mmHg (80-100)
9.2 kPa (10.5-13.1)
PaCO2 78 mmHg (35-45)
10.2 kPa (4.6-6.0)
BE -3 mEq/L (-3 +/-3)
Standard bic 27 mmol/L (21-27)
SaO2 94%
The most likely cause of an increase in the patient's global cerebral blood flow (CBF) is which of the following?
Your Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.
Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.
An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries.
He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed.
Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?Your Answer: Epidural with 20 mL 0.5% bupivacaine and 2 mcg/mL fentanyl
Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion
Explanation:With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.
Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.
2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).
Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.
The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?
Your Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?
Your Answer: At lower rates of infusion, there is increased contractility, heart rate, cardiac output and coronary blood flow
Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time
Explanation:Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.
Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?Your Answer: Giardiasis
Correct Answer: Campylobacter
Explanation:Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.
Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.
Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?
Your Answer: Tissue pKa
Correct Answer: Protein binding
Explanation:When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to ?1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.
The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.
Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root?
Your Answer: S1, S2, S3
Correct Answer: S2, S3, S4
Explanation:The external urethral sphincter functions to provide voluntary control of urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.
It receives its innervation from the branches of the pudendal nerve which originate from S2, S3 and S4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Correct
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The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.
What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?Your Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline
Explanation:30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mLThe volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).
If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls
The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds.
Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?Your Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin
Explanation:Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.
Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.
Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.
2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Correct
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The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which of the following structures do they primarily drain?
Your Answer: Atrium
Explanation:The heart has two venous drainage systems:
1. Greater venous system – it parallels the coronary arterial circulation and provides 70% venous drainage to the heart
2. Lesser venous system – includes the thebasian veins and provides up to 30% of the venous drainage to the heartThebasian veins (also called venae cordis minimae) are the smallest coronary veins and run in the myocardial layer of the heart. They serve to drain the myocardium and are present in all four heart chambers. They are more abundant on the right side of the heart and, more specifically, are most abundant in the right atrium. Thebesian veins drain the subendocardial myocardium either directly, via connecting intramural arteries and veins, or indirectly, via subendocardial sinusoidal spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?
Your Answer: Is the square root of standard deviation
Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.
If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.
A 95% confidence interval:
lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)
upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)
Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).
Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 19
Correct
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A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting.
In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?Your Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
Minor role in clotting
Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
Factor 12 activates Factor 11
Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 102. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
In tissue damage:
Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 103. Common pathway
Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.4. Fibrinolysis
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?
Your Answer: Stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas
Correct Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.
If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?Your Answer: 1 g with a maximum daily dose not exceeding 4 g
Correct Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
Explanation:A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).
Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
>10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
>33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
>50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
>50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 gSpecial precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.
The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance. Â
End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa
Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%.Â
Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?Your Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old man has complained of persistent hoarseness and dry cough. He has a history of smoking 20 cigarettes per day. The examination reveals no significant clinical signs of cranial nerve damage.
Referred to an ENT specialist, the patient is explained how coughing is usually a defence mechanism of the body which is activated more than usual by the chemical irritants in cigarette smoke. However, the ENT doctor suspects a nerve involvement in the cough reflex as the patient also presents with hoarseness with the dry cough.
Which nerves is the ENT doctor suspecting to have been affected in this patient?Your Answer: CN IX and X
Explanation:Cough is an important defensive reflex that helps clear secretions and particulates from the airways. A complex reflex arc generates each cough.
The cough reflex begins with irritation of the cough receptors present in the epithelium of the trachea, main carina, branching points of large airways, and more distal smaller airways. These receptors are responsive to both mechanical and chemical stimuli.
Afferent pathway:
Impulses from stimulated receptors are transmitted via sensory nerve fibres of the vagus nerve (mainly) and glossopharyngeal nerve and travel to the medulla diffusely. CN 5 is also thought to contribute to the afferent limb. However, the vagus is the main nerve.Central pathway:
The cough centre is located in the upper brain stem and ponsEfferent pathway:
Impulses from the centre travel via the vagus, phrenic nerve, and spinal motor nerves to the diaphragm, abdominal wall, and muscles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?
Your Answer: -90mV
Explanation:The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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About the vagus nerve, which one of these is true ?
Your Answer: Carries motor fibres to the palatal muscles
Correct Answer: Gives off the recurrent laryngeal nerve on the right as it passes anteriorly across the subclavian artery
Explanation:The tenth cranial nerve (vagus nerve) has both sensory and motor divisions.
It emerges from the anterolateral surface of the medulla in a groove between the olive and the inferior cerebellar peduncle as a series of 8-10 rootlets . It leaves the skull through the middle compartment of the jugular foramen and descends within the carotid sheath between the internal carotid artery and internal jugular vein. The right vagus crosses in front of the first part of the subclavian artery. It gives off the right recurrent laryngeal nerve at this point.
The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around the ligamentum arteriosum.
The external laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the other laryngeal muscles.
The cranial part of the accessory nerve supplies all the muscles of the palate, via the pharyngeal plexus and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve, except the tensor veli palatini which is supplied by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve.
The Sternothyroid, Sternohyoid, and Omohyoid muscles are supplied by the ansa cervicalis while the thyrohyoid muscle is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Correct
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Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates?
Your Answer: The odds ratio is synonymous with the risk ratio
Explanation:The relative risk (also known as risk ratio [RR]) is the ratio of risk of an event in one group (e.g., exposed group) versus the risk of the event in the other group (e.g., nonexposed group).
The odds ratio (OR) is the ratio of odds of an event in one group versus the odds of the event in the other group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 27
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:
Your Answer: The simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide impedes its absorption
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.
Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.
Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.
Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it.
What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?Your Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 29
Correct
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In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.
Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?Your Answer: Leukotrienes
Explanation:Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.
The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.
The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:
Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.
TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.
PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.
PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis.
Clinical examination is as follows:
Airway: Patent
Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added
Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries
Pulse: 125 beats per minute
BP: 125/96 mmHg
Disability:
Glasgow coma score 15
Anxious and in pain.
Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?Your Answer: Left cephalic vein
Explanation:The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
Minimal systolic pressure changes
Anxiety, fright or hostility
Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale
Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).
Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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