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  • Question 1 - A patient with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea develops a low platelet...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea develops a low platelet count and deranged renal function. A diagnosis of haemolytic uraemic syndrome is made.
      Which of the following organisms is a recognised cause of haemolytic uraemic syndrome? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      E.Colistrain 0157 causes enterohaemorrhagic diarrhoea and can be followed by haemolytic uraemic syndrome (renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      98.9
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Regarding hepatitis A, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding hepatitis A, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Anti-HAV IgM antibodies are diagnostic.

      Explanation:

      Anti-HAV IgM antibodies are diagnostic. Disease in children is more commonly asymptomatic, risk of symptomatic disease increases with age. Transmission is by the faecal-oral route. Faecal shedding has been demonstrated for 2 – 3 weeks before and about a week after, the onset of jaundice. Infection confers lifelong immunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      26.2
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following hormones regulates Na+reabsorption in the proximal tubule: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones regulates Na+reabsorption in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II increases Na+reabsorption from the proximal tubule (by activating Na+/H+antiporters).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      7.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in a patient infected with HIV:

      Your Answer: Oral candidiasis

      Correct Answer: CD4 count < 200 cells/uL

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of AIDS can be made in a patient infected with HIV if the patient has a CD4 count < 200 cells/uL, or an AIDS-defining illness. Antiretroviral treatment should be considered in patients with CD4 counts < 350 cells/uL.

      Oral candidiasis is not an AIDS defining illness – candidiasis of the bronchi, trachea, lungs or of the oesophagus is an AIDS defining illness.

      A positive p24 antigen test seen in early HIV infection and does not indicate the development of AIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      22.9
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man had a painless superficial inguinal lymphadenopathy. It was later found...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man had a painless superficial inguinal lymphadenopathy. It was later found to be malignant. Which of the following parts of the body is most likely the origin of this cancerous lymph node?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Correct Answer: Anal canal

      Explanation:

      A cancer of the anal canal below the pectinate line would spread to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

      Anal cancer often spreads through lymphatic drainage to the internal iliac lymph nodes in lesions above the pectinate line and to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes in lesions below the pectinate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      31.3
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - The sensory innervation of the oropharynx is provided by which of the following...

    Correct

    • The sensory innervation of the oropharynx is provided by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Each subdivision of the pharynx has a different sensory innervation:the nasopharynx is innervated by the maxillary nervethe oropharynx is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nervethe laryngopharynx is innervated by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      17.3
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of hyposplenism arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of hyposplenism arrives at the Emergency Department sick and feverish. A complete set of bloods, including a peripheral blood film, is organised.

      On a hyposplenic blood film, which of the following features is LEAST likely to be seen?

      Your Answer: Target cells

      Correct Answer: Teardrop cells

      Explanation:

      The collection of abnormalities found in these patients is referred to as a hyposplenic film.
      The following features can be seen on hyposplenic blood films:
      Howell-Jolly bodies
      Heinz’s bodies
      Target cells
      RBCs with nuclei on occasion
      Lymphocytosis
      Macrocytosis
      Acanthocytes
      Teardrop cells, also known as dacrocytes, are named for their teardrop-shaped shape.

      Dacrocytosis is a condition in which a large number of these cells are present. Myelofibrosis and beta thalassemia major both have dacrocytes, but hyposplenism does not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      44
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old man is diagnosed with a severe case of asthma.

    In the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is diagnosed with a severe case of asthma.

      In the treatment of acute asthma in adults, which of the following is NOT recommended?

      Your Answer: IV salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Nebulised magnesium

      Explanation:

      There is no evidence to support the use of nebulized magnesium sulphate in the treatment of adults at this time.

      In adults with acute asthma, the following medication dosages are recommended:
      By using an oxygen-driven nebuliser, you can get 5 milligrams of salbutamol.
      500 mcg ipratropium bromide in an oxygen-driven nebuliser
      Oral prednisolone 40-50 mg
      100 mg hydrocortisone intravenous
      1.2-2 g magnesium sulphate IV over 20 minutes
      When inhaled treatment is ineffective, intravenous salbutamol (250 mcg IV slowly) may be explored (e.g. a patient receiving bag-mask ventilation).

      Following senior counsel, current ALS recommendations propose that IV aminophylline be explored in severe or life-threatening asthma. If utilized, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg should be administered over 20 minutes, then a 500-700 mcg/kg/hour infusion should be given. To avoid toxicity, serum theophylline levels should be kept below 20 mcg/ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      14.6
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 32-year old male patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and was...

    Correct

    • A 32-year old male patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and was given appropriate treatments. Because he is a family man, he fears that he might transmit the infection to the rest of his family members.

      The causative agent of meningococcal meningitis is spread via what mode of transmission?

      Your Answer: Respiratory droplet route

      Explanation:

      N. meningitidis, the causative agent of meningococcal meningitis, is considered both a commensal and a pathogen. It can be found in the surfaces of mucous membranes such as the nasopharynx and oropharynx. With this, it can be transmitted from a carrier to a new host via respiratory droplet secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      634.2
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.
      Which of the following is NOT an action of the gluteus maximus muscle? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Hip lateral rotation

      Correct Answer: Hip abduction

      Explanation:

      Gluteus maximus is the main extensor muscle of the hip and assists with lateral rotation of the thigh at the hip joint. It also acts as a hip adductor, steadies the thigh, and assists in raising the trunk from a flexed position.
      Gluteus maximus is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      22.6
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Which of the following is an action of glucagon: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an action of glucagon:

      Your Answer: Stimulates glycogenolysis

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      56.7
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to...

    Incorrect

    • For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.

      Which of the following medications will prevent warfarin from working?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.

      Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibit the effects of warfarin, resulting in a lower INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, use the mnemonic PC BRASS:

      P– Phenytoin
      C– Carbamazepine
      B– Barbiturates
      R– Rifampicin
      A– Alcohol (chronic ingestion)
      S– Sulphonylureas
      S– Smoking

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      5498.4
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which of these increases osteoclast activity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these increases osteoclast activity?

      Your Answer: Calcitonin

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Osteoclasts are bone cell that break down bone tissue.

      Parathyroid hormone increases osteoclastic activity.

      1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases osteoclastic activity

      Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic activity

      Bisphosphonates are osteoclast inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - The transport of oxygen from maternal to fetal circulation is made possible by...

    Correct

    • The transport of oxygen from maternal to fetal circulation is made possible by fetal haemoglobin. Which of the statements about fetal haemoglobin (HbF) is also correct?

      Your Answer: The oxygen dissociation curve for foetal haemoglobin is shifted to the left of that of adult haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Fetal haemoglobin is the most common type of haemoglobin found in the foetus during pregnancy. It transports oxygen from the maternal circulation to the fetal circulation. It can easily bind to oxygen from the maternal circulation because it has a high affinity for oxygen. From 10 to 12 weeks of pregnancy to the first six months after birth, the erythroid precursor cells produce fetal haemoglobin. In comparison to adult haemoglobin, fetal haemoglobin has two alpha and two gamma subunits, whereas adult haemoglobin has two alpha and two beta subunits in its major form.

      And, unlike adult haemoglobin, the oxygen dissociation curve of fetal haemoglobin is left-shifted. Myoglobin is an oxygen storage molecule with a very high affinity for oxygen. Only when the partial pressure of oxygen is exceeded does it release oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      79.5
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - An unrelated medical condition brings a 28-year-old asthmatic man to the Emergency Department....

    Incorrect

    • An unrelated medical condition brings a 28-year-old asthmatic man to the Emergency Department. When you look over his meds, you notice that he is taking Theophylline to help with his asthma.

      Which of the following medicines should you NOT prescribe?

      Your Answer: Cefalexin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin is a cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitor that raises theophylline levels in the blood. As a result, co-prescribing theophylline should be avoided.

      The medicines that typically impact theophylline’s half-life and plasma concentration are listed in the table below:
      Drugs that increase the levels of theophylline in the blood
      Drugs that lower theophylline levels in the blood
      Calcium channel blockers e.g. Verapamil
      Fluconazole
      Cimetidine
      Quinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacin
      Methotrexate
      Barbiturates
      Carbamazepine
      Phenobarbital
      Macrolides, e.g. erythromycin
      Phenytoin (and fosphenytoin)
      Rifampicin
      St. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      27.7
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A patient had a left Colles' fracture, which you were able to repair. It...

    Incorrect

    • A patient had a left Colles' fracture, which you were able to repair. It was their second fragility fracture this year, and you'd like to provide them some tips on how to keep their bones healthy.

      What percentage of the calcium in the body is kept in the bones? Only ONE response is acceptable.

      Your Answer: 65%

      Correct Answer: 99%

      Explanation:

      Calcium is stored in bones for nearly all of the body’s calcium, but it is also found in some cells (most notably muscle cells) and the blood. The average adult diet comprises roughly 25 mmol of calcium per day, of which the body absorbs only about 5 mmol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      504.7
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A 78-year-old woman visits the emergency room with dizziness and nausea. She claims...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman visits the emergency room with dizziness and nausea. She claims that her doctor gave her cinnarizine two days prior, but that it didn't seem to help.

      Cinnarizine's mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Antihistamine action

      Explanation:

      Cinnarizine is a piperazine derivative with an antihistamine effect that makes it anti-emetic. Motion sickness and vestibular disorders, such as Méniéres disease, are the most common conditions for which it is prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      26.8
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 23-year-old female has been prescribed a medication in the first trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female has been prescribed a medication in the first trimester of pregnancy due to a life-threatening medical problem. After delivery, the foetus is found to have nasal hypoplasia, stippling of his bones and atrophy of bilateral optic discs along with growth retardation.

      Which ONE of the following drugs has this woman most likely received?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic and can cause a host of abnormalities in the growing foetus. These include hypoplasia of the nasal bridge, stippling of the epiphyses, multiple ophthalmic complications, growth retardation, pectus carinatum, atrial septal defect, ventriculomegaly and a patent ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      25.8
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. You suspect he...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. You suspect he may have tuberculosis. He works at an asylum seeker hostel, and has not received a BCG vaccination. In which of the following patient groups would the BCG vaccine be safe to administer?

      Your Answer: The patient is asplenic

      Explanation:

      Persons with chronic diseases. Persons with chronic renal disease or undergoing dialysis, and those with hyposplenism or asplenia, may receive BCG vaccine if indicated.

      Only 2 absolute contraindications apply to all vaccines:

      • anaphylaxis following a previous dose of the relevant vaccine
      • anaphylaxis following any component of the relevant vaccine

      2 further contraindications apply to live vaccines (both parenteral and oral):

      • People who are significantly immunocompromised should not receive live vaccines. This is regardless of whether the immunocompromising condition is caused by disease or treatment.
      • Pregnant women should not receive live vaccines, in general. Women should be advised not to become pregnant within 28 days of receiving a live vaccine.

      Use of live vaccines in people who are immunocompromised:
      People who are immunocomprised are at risk of adverse events or vaccine-related disease if they receive a live vaccine.

      Live vaccines include:

      BCG (bacille Calmette–Guérin) vaccine
      oral cholera vaccine (Vaxchora)
      Some Japanese encephalitis virus vaccines
      MMR (measles-mumps-rubella) vaccine
      rotavirus vaccine
      oral typhoid vaccine
      varicella vaccine
      yellow fever vaccine
      zoster vaccine (Zostavax)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      49.6
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements regarding the infectivity periods of these corresponding diseases...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the infectivity periods of these corresponding diseases is correct?

      Your Answer: Rubella is infectious until 5 days after the rash appears

      Explanation:

      Rubella can be contagious from 7 days before to 7 days after the rash appears.

      Patients with measles are contagious from 1-2 days before the onset of symptoms.

      A person with chickenpox is considered contagious beginning 1 to 2 days before rash onset until all the chickenpox lesions have crusted (scabbed).

      The infectious period of mumps is considered from 2 days before to 5 days after parotitis onset.

      Hepatitis A is highly transmissible and has an average incubation period of 28 to 30 days (range 15–50 days). The maximum infectivity is during the second half of the incubation period (i.e. while asymptomatic) and most cases are considered non-infectious after the first week of jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      42.2
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - When an elderly dehydrated patient is moved from a supine to a standing...

    Correct

    • When an elderly dehydrated patient is moved from a supine to a standing position, her heart rate increases. Which of the following accounts for the increase in heart rate upon standing:

      Your Answer: Decreased venous return

      Explanation:

      On standing from a prone position, gravity causes blood to pool in veins in the legs. Central venous pressure (CVP) falls, causing a fall in stroke volume and cardiac output (due to Starling’s law) and thus a fall in blood pressure. Normally this fall in BP is rapidly corrected by the baroreceptor reflex which causes venoconstriction (partially restoring CVP), and an increase in heart rate and contractility, so restoring cardiac output and blood pressure. Impaired autonomic nervous activity in the elderly accounts for the greater likelihood of postural hypotension. Any symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision or syncope is due to a transient fall in cerebral perfusion that occurs before cardiac output and mean arterial pressure (MAP) can be corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      67.8
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A patient with diplopia is found to have eye deviation downwards and outwards....

    Incorrect

    • A patient with diplopia is found to have eye deviation downwards and outwards. The likely nerves that are affected are:

      Your Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The results of an oculomotor (CN III) nerve palsy are a depressed and abducted (down and out) eye, ptosis, diplopia, and a fixed and dilated pupil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      28.7
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - In the treatment of hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma, which of the following medication...

    Incorrect

    • In the treatment of hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma, which of the following medication types is administered as first-line management:

      Your Answer: Beta-blockers

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blockers

      Explanation:

      The first line of management in controlling blood pressure and preventing intraoperative hypertensive crises is to use a combination of alpha and beta-adrenergic inhibition. In phaeochromocytoma, alpha-blockers are used to treat hypertensive episodes in the short term. Tachycardia can be managed by the careful addition of a beta-blocker, preferably a cardioselective beta-blocker, once alpha blockade has been established. Long term management of pheochromocytoma involves surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      16.9
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

    Which of...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

      Which of the following stimulates release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

      Your Answer: Increased plasma phosphate concentration

      Explanation:

      PTH is synthesised and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands located behind the thyroid gland.
      It is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids and it controls free calcium in the body.

      The following stimuli causes release of PTH:
      Increased plasma phosphate concentration
      Decreased plasma calcium concentration

      PTH release is inhibited by:
      Normal or increased plasma calcium concentration
      Hypomagnesaemia

      The main actions of PTH are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      34.1
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 18-year-old man returns from a trip to Ibiza with a severely painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old man returns from a trip to Ibiza with a severely painful left eye. He has copious mucopurulent discharge, is febrile and has left-sided tender preauricular lymphadenopathy. He attends the local eye casualty and is diagnosed with hyperacute conjunctivitis.
      What is the SINGLE most likely causatiave organism?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Hyperacute bacterial conjunctivitis is a severe, sight-threatening ocular infection that warrants immediate ophthalmic work-up and management. The infection has an abrupt onset and is characterized by a copious yellow-green purulent discharge that reaccumulates after being wiped away. Typically caused by infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      34.9
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which of the following is NOT mainly characterised by intravascular haemolysis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT mainly characterised by intravascular haemolysis:

      Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Correct Answer: Beta-Thalassaemia

      Explanation:

      Causes of intravascular haemolysis:
      Haemolytic transfusion reactions
      G6PD deficiency
      Red cell fragmentation syndromes
      Some severe autoimmune haemolytic anaemias
      Some drug-and infection-induced haemolytic anaemias
      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.4
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Lidocaine's mechanism of action as a local aesthetic is as follows: ...

    Correct

    • Lidocaine's mechanism of action as a local aesthetic is as follows:

      Your Answer: Blocks influx of Na+ through voltage-gated Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      Local anaesthetics prevent generation/conduction of nerve impulses by reducing sodium permeability and increasing action potential threshold; inhibits depolarization, which results in blockade of conduction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 39-year-old man who is suffering from a bacterial infection require antibiotic treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man who is suffering from a bacterial infection require antibiotic treatment. You need to figure out which antibiotic is most suitable. Listed below are antimicrobial drugs.

      Which one is a nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Penicillin G

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin and other quinolone antibiotics work by blocking DNA gyrase, an enzyme that compresses bacterial DNA into supercoils, as well as a type II topoisomerase, which is required for bacterial DNA separation. As a result, they prevent nucleic acid synthesis.
      The following is a summary of the many modes of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:

      Action Mechanisms- Examples:

      Cell wall production is inhibited
      Vancomycin
      Vancomycin
      Cephalosporins

      The function of the cell membrane is disrupted
      Nystatin
      Polymyxins
      Amphotericin B 

      Inhibition of protein synthesis
      Chloramphenicol
      Macrolides
      Aminoglycosides
      Tetracyclines

      Nucleic acid synthesis inhibition
      Quinolones
      Trimethoprim
      Rifampicin
      5-nitroimidazoles
      Sulphonamides
      Anti-metabolic activity
      Isoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      33.1
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - By what mechanism does Vibrio cholerae causes diarrhoea? ...

    Correct

    • By what mechanism does Vibrio cholerae causes diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Increases Cl- secretory channels in crypt cells

      Explanation:

      Cholera is a severe diarrheal illness caused by the Vibrio cholerae bacteria infecting the bowel. Ingesting cholera-infected food or drink is the a way to contract the disease. In the intestinal crypt cells, the toxigenic bacterium Vibrio cholera activates adenylate cyclase and raises cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP).

      cAMP stimulates the Cl-secretory channels in crypt cells, resulting in the secretion of chloride with sodium ions and water. The toxin it produces causes the body to secrete massive amounts of water, resulting in diarrhoea and significant fluid and electrolyte loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      12.3
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - After reviewing a child with respiratory distress who presented to the clinic, you...

    Correct

    • After reviewing a child with respiratory distress who presented to the clinic, you make a diagnosis of bronchiolitis.

      What is the most common causative organism?

      Your Answer: Respiratory syncitial virus

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection that occurs in infancy between the ages of 3-6 months and in the winter months. It is most commonly caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (70% of cases)

      Although it can also be caused by parainfluenza virus, adenovirus, coronavirus, rhinovirus, and influenza virus, these are not the most common causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      13.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (4/7) 57%
Specific Pathogen Groups (2/4) 50%
Pathogens (2/3) 67%
Physiology (5/7) 71%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/4) 25%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Pathology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (4/10) 40%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (1/3) 33%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Immunological Products & Vaccines (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
Infections (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
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